SPECTRUM CHAPTER WISE QUESTIONS – MODERN INDIAN HISTORY ADHUNIKA BHARAT KA ITIHAS BEST BOOK NOTES SUMMARY AND TOP BEST MOST IMPORTANT MCQ QUESTIONS FOR UPSC IAS IPS IFS IFOS UPPSC UPPCS MPPSC MPSC CGPSC BPSC 64TH CSE CIVIL SERVICES EXAMS AND STATE PCS SSC AND OTHER COMPETITIVE EXAMS


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CHAPTER WISE QUESTIONS ( MODERN INDIAN HISTORY ADHUNIK BHARAT KA ITIHAAS ) – MOST IMPORTANT MCQ QUESTION WITH DETAILED EXPLANATION FOR UPSC  IAS IPS IFS IFOS IRS STATE PCS UPPSC MPPSC RAS BPSC MPPSC MPSC OPSC PPSC HPSC HCS SSC AND VARIOUS OTHER COMPETITIVE EXAMS

CHAPTER-1

Sources for the History of Modern India

Q 1 Consider the following statements :-

  1. Sir George Everest ( the man behind naming Mount Everest ) was the first Surveyor general of India

  2. Survey of India (SOI) is under Ministry of Science & Technology

  3. SOI headquartered in Delhi.

  Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. 2 & 3 only

  4. 1 & 2 only

 

Answer b

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is incorrect – The East India Company appointed James Rennellto survey the Bengal Presidency in 1767. Lord Clive appointed him as Surveyor General. Colin Mackenzie was appointed Surveyor General of Madras Presidency in 1810 but these posts were abolished in 1815 and Mackenzie was made the first Surveyor General of India. Sir George everest was the 6th surveyor general of india.

  • In 1865, Everest was given its official English name by the Royal Geographical Society, upon a recommendation by Andrew Waugh, the British Surveyor General of India. As there appeared to be several different local names, Waugh chose to name the mountain after his predecessor in the post, Sir George Everest.

  • Statement 2 is correct – Survey of India, The National Survey and Mapping Organization of the country under the Department of Science & Technology, is the OLDEST SCIENTIFIC DEPARTMENT OF THE GOVT. OF INDIA.

  • Statement 3 is Incorrect –Headquarterof Survey of India, Office of Surveyor General of India,  Hathibarkala Estate, Dehradun

 

Q2  Arrange these battleground from north to south

  1. Plassey

  2. Buxar

  3. Chittagong

  4. Haldighati

  5. Panipat

Select the correct order of their location

  1. Panipat-Buxar-Chittagong-Haldighati-Plassey

  2. Haldighati – Panipat- Plassey-Chittagong- Buxar

  3. Panipat- Buxar- Haldighati – Plassey-Chittagong

  4. Haldighati – Panipat-Buxar-Plassey-Chittagong

 

Answer  C

Explanation

  • The Battle of Haldighati was a four-hour battle between the ruler of Mewar (Maharana Pratap) and the Mughal Empire (ruled by Akbar I). The battle took place in Haldighati, Rajasthan, in the year 1576. In the NEWS due to Rajasthan Govt. action on revisiting the battle result.

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  • The Battle of Plassey was fought in 1757. The victory of the Battle of Plassey was a worth mentioning victory of the British East India Company over the Bengal’s Nawab Siraj-Ud-daula.

  • The Battle of Buxar (1764) was the pivotal battle which was fought between English Forces, and a joint army of the Nawab of Oudh Shah Alam II, Nawab of Bengal, Mir Kasim, and Mughal Emperor.

  • The Chittagong armoury raid, also known as the Chittagong uprising, was an attempt on 18 April 1930 to raid the armoury of police and auxiliary forces from the Chittagong armoury in the Bengal Presidency of British India by armed Indian independence fighters led by Surjo Sen also known as master da.

  • There have been three Battles of Panipat:

The First Battle of Panipat (1526), fought between Babur and Ibrahim Lodi

The Second Battle of Panipat (1556), at which Akbar defeated Hemu

The Third Battle of Panipat (1761) , between Marathas and Mughals.

Source – Google maps .

Q3  Which of the following was published earliest.

  1. The Calcutta Gazette 1784

  2. The madras Courier 1785

  3. The Bombay herald 1789

  4. The Hindu 1878

Answer a

Explanation

  • The Calcutta Gazette was founded by Francis Gladwin, an officer in the British East India Trading company and an orientalist. Its first issue was published on 4 March 1784.

  • The Madras courier is a 232 years old brand , launched on October 12 , 1785 by Richard Johnston.

  • Initially founded in 1789 as the “Bombay Herald“, the newspaper’s name was changed to “Bombay Gazette” in 1791.

  • The Hindu, started in 1878 as a weekly, became a daily in 1889 and from then on has been steadily growing to the circulation of 15,58,379 copies (ABC: July-December 2012) and a readership of about 22.58 lakhs.

Source – https://madrascourier.com/our-story/ , https://www.thehindu.com/aboutus/ , Page no. 9 Spectrum’s A brief History of Modern India.

 

Q 4 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the list

                    List I                                                List II

  1. Amrtita Bazar patrika     Gopal Krishna gokhale

  2. Voice of india                           Sisir kumar ghosh

  3. Sudharak                                   G subramaniam Iyer

  4. Swadesamitran      Dada bhai naroji

Code :

A    a   b  c  d

       4  2  3   1 

B    a   b  c  d

       2  3  1   4

C    a   b  c  d

      4   1  3  2  

D    a   b  c  d

       2   4  1  3

 

Answer D

Explanation

  • Amrita Bazar Patrika is one of the oldest daily newspapers in South Asia and the oldest in Bangladesh. Originally published in Bengali script, it evolved into an English format after the vernacular press act an published from Kolkata and other locations such as Cuttack, Ranchi and Allahabad. It debuted on 20 February 1868. It was started by Sisir Ghosh and Moti Lal Ghosh

  • Dadabhai Naoroji started the newspaper Voice of India. In 1883 he started the Voice of India in Bombay and later incorporated it into the Indian Spectator.

  • Sudharak, meaning Reformer, was a newspaper in India. It was founded in 1888 by Gopal Krishna Gokhale. Some of the books claim that sudharak was started by Gopal Ganesh Agarkar.

  • Swadesamitran was a Tamil language newspaper that was published from the then Madras city from 1882 to 1985. One of the earliest Tamil newspapers and the longest in print, Swadesamitran was founded by Indian nationalist Subramania Iyer four years after he had started The Hindu

Source – Page no. 9 Spectrum’s A brief History of Modern India.

 

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CHAPTER-3

Advent of the Europeans in India

Q 1 Consider the following statements :-

  1. Goa was declared as porutgese capital in 1525.

  2. Vasco da Gama arrived at Cochin in 1498.

  3. Zamorin was the local king when Vasco da Gama arrived.

 

  Which of the above statement/s is/are correct

  1. 2 and 3 only

  2. 3 only

  3. 1 and 3 only

  4. 1 only

Answer B

Explanation

  • Vasco da gama arrived at Calicut in 1498

  • and his grand reception was by the local king Zamorin.

  • Declaration of Goa as the portugese capital was in 1530.

Source – Page 33, Spectrum’s A brief History of Modern India.

Q2. Which of the following Dutch factory was set up earliest?

  1. Bimlipatam

  2. Karikal

  3. Cassimbazar

  4. Pulicat

Answer d

Explaination

Dutch factories in India

  • Masulipatnam (1605),

  • Pulicat (1610) ,

  • Surat ( 1616) ,

  • Bimlipatam(1641),

  • Karikal ( 1645),

  • Chinsurah(1653),

  • Cassimbazar (1658)

Source – Page 57 , Spectrum’s A brief History of Modern India.

Q3 Consider the following statements :-

  1. Second Carnatic war is also known as Battle of wandiwash.

  2. First Carnatic war was an extension of the Anglo French rivalry in Europe.

3.By the treaty of Paris (1763), the French were allowed to use Indian settlements for commercial purpose only.

  1. First Carnatic war period was from 1740 to 1750.

  Which of the above statement/s is/are not correct

  1. 1 & 2 only

  2. 1 & 4 only

  3. 2 & 3 only

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  1. 1, 2 & 3 only

 

Answer B

Explanation

  • First Carnatic War (1740-48) It was an extension of the Anglo-French rivalry in Europe and ended in 1748 with the Treaty of Aix-La Chapelle.

  • Second Carnatic War (1749-54) Although inconclusive, it underminedthe French power in South India vis-à-vis the English.

  • Third Carnatic War (1758-63) A decisive war, known for the Battle of Wandiwash (1760-61); An echo of the Anglo-French struggle in Europe.By the Treaty of Paris (1763), the French were allowed to use Indian settlements for commercial purposes only and fortification of settlements were banned.

Source – Page 59 , Spectrum’s A brief History of Modern India.

 

Q 4 Consider the following statements :-

  1. Muazzam was the eldest son of Aurangzeb and later took the title Bahadur Shah.

  2. Khafi khan gave the title of Shah-i- Bekhabar to Bahadur Shah.

  3. Bahadur Shah killed his brothers Muhammad Azam and Kam Baksh in war of succession

Which of the above statement/s is/are  correct

  1. 1 & 2 only

  2. 1 & 4 only

  3. 2 & 3 only

  4. 1, 2 & 3 only

Answer  d

Explanation :-

  • Bahadur Shah I (1709–March 1712) After a nearly two-year-long war of succession, the 63-year-old Prince Muazzam, the eldest son of Aurangzeb, became the emperor, taking the title Bahadur Shah.

  • He was later called (Bahadur Shah I).

  • He had killed his brothers Muhammad Azam and Kam Bakhsh in the war of succession.

  • Khafi Khan gave the title of Shah-i-Bekhabar to Bahadur Shah.

Sources :- Page 63, Spectrum’s A brief History of Modern India.

Q5 Consider the following statements

  1. Third battle of panipat was fought during the reign of Alamgir II

  2. Battle of plassey was fought during reign of Mughal ruler Shah Alam II

  3. Muhammad Shah was the Mughal ruler during the Battle of Karnal

  4. Akbar II gave the title of Raja to Ram Mohan Rai.

Which of the above statement/s is/are  correct

  1. 1,2 & 4 only

  2. 3 & 4 only

  3. 2 ,3 & 4 only

  4. 1 & 3 only

Answer  b

  • Nasir-ud-Din Muḥammad Shah (born Roshan Akhtar) (7 August 1702 – 16 April 1748) was Mughal emperor from 1719 to 1748. The Battle of Karnal was fought on 24 February 1739

  • Aziz-ud-din Alamgir II (6 June 1699 – 29 November 1759) was the Mughal Emperor of India from 3 June 1754 to 29 November 1759. He was the son of Jahandar Shah. The Battle of Plassey was a decisive victory of the British East India Company over the Nawab of Bengal and his French allies on 23 June 1757.

  • Akbar II (1806-37) He gave the title of Raja to Rammohan Rai.

  • Ali Gohar (25 June 1728 – 19 November 1806), historically known as Shah Alam II, was the sixteenth Mughal Emperor and the son of Alamgir II. The Third Battle of Panipat fought on January 14, 1761 between the Marathas and forces of the Afghan ruler Ahmad Shah Abdali and his allies.

Sources :-  Page 65, Spectrum’s A brief History of Modern India

Q16 Ranjit Singh signed Treaty of Amritsar with

  1. British East India Company

  2. Shah Shuja

  3. Shah Shuja & British East India Company

  4. Ahmed Shah Abdali

Answer a

Explanation :- 

  • Treaty of Amritsar, 1809, an agreement between the British East India Company and Ranjit Singh, founder of the Sikh empire.

Sources:-  Page 73, Spectrum’s A brief History of Modern India

Q7 Consider the following statements

  1. Rohilkhand was named after Persian Ruler.

  2. Bundelkhand Region was known as Madhyadesh in Mahabharata.

  3. Present day Bareilly is in Rohilkhand region.

Which of the above statement/s is/are not  correct

  1. 1 & 3 only

  2. 1 & 2 only

  3. 2 & 3 only

  4. 1,2 & 3 only

Answer b

Explanation :-

  • Rohilkhand is a region of northwestern Uttar Pradesh state of India, named after the Rohilla Afghan tribes.

  • The region was known as Madhyadesh in the Hindu epic Mahabharata.

  • Separated sube from Rohilkhand : Bareilly, Rampur, Rudrapur, Pilibhit, Khutar, Shahjahanpur Budaun Kakrala.

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Sources :- Page no 75, Spectrum’s A brief History of Modern India.

 

Q8  Raja Sawai Jai Singh didn’t built astronomical observatives at

  1. Jaipur

  2. Mathura

  3. Gwalior

  4. Varanasi

Answer c

Explanation :-

 In the first half of the 18th century, Sawai Jai Singh built the pink city of Jaipur and five astronomical observatives at

  • Delhi,

  • Jaipur,

  • Benares,

  • Mathura and

  • He also prepared a set of time-tables called Jij Muhammad-shahi, to help the people in the study of astronomy.

Places where Jantar Mantar were built

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Sources:-  Page no 79, Spectrum’s A brief History of Modern India. http://www.jantarmantar.org/learn/observatories/index.html

 

 

Q9 Consider the following statements

  1. Bada Imambara at Lucknow was Built by Asaf ud Daula

  2. Jij Muhammad-shahi was also built by Asaf ud Daula

  3. Jantar Mantar at Delhi was built by Sawai Jai Singh.

  4. Pink city of Jaipur was also built by Raja Sawai Jai Singh.

Which of the above statement/s is/are  correct

  1. 1, 3 & 4only

  2. 1 & 2 only

  3. 1, 2 & 3 only

  4. 1,2 & 4 only

Answer a

Explanation: –

  • At Lucknow, Asaf-ud-Daula built the bada Imambara in 1784.

  • In the first half of the 18th century, Sawai Jai Singh built the pink city of Jaipur and five astronomical observatives at Delhi, Jaipur, Benares, Mathura and Ujjain.

  • He also prepared a set of time-tables called Jij Muhammad-shahi, to help the people in the study of astronomy.

Bada Imambara

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Jantar Mantar

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Source:-  Page no 79, Spectrum’s A brief History of Modern India.

https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/travel/lucknow/bada-imambara/ps38469409.c

 

Q10 Consider the following statements

  1. Kanchan Nambiar was a noted Tamil poet.

  2. Heer Ranjha the romantic epic in Punjabi literature was composed by Warris Shah.

  3. Shah Abdul Latif Composed Risalo, a collection of poem in Sindhi literature.

Which of the above statement/s is/are  correct

  1. 1 & 3 only

  2. 1 & 2 only

  3. 2 & 3 only

  4. 1,2 & 3 only

Answer :- C

Explanation:-

  • In south India, Malayalam literature flourished under the patronage of the Travancore rulers. Kanchan Nambiar was a noted Malayalam poet.

  • The Tamil language was enriched by sittar poetry.

  • Tayumanavar (1706-44), one of the best exponents of sittar poetry, protested against the abuses of temple-rule and the caste system.

  • Heer Ranjha, the romantic epic in Punjabi literature, was composed by Warris Shah.

  • In Sindhi literature, Shah Abdul Latif composed Risalo, a collection of poems. These are just some examples of literary works in regional languages.

Source :- Page no 80, Spectrum’s A brief History of Modern India

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CHAPTER-4

India on the Eve of British Conquest

 

Q1 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the list

              List I                                                     List II

  1. Battle of Buxar     1757

  2. Treaty of Allahabad     1761

  3. Battle of Plassey                  1764

  4. Third Battle of Panipat     1765

Code :

A    a   b  c  d

       4  1  3   2 

B    a   b  c  d

       2  4  1   3

C    a   b  c  d

      1   3  4  2  

D    a   b  c  d

       3   4  1  2

 

Answer D

Explanation :- 

  • The Battle of Plassey was fought in 1757. The victory of the Battle of Plassey was a worth mentioning victory of the British East India Company over the Bengal’s Nawab Siraj-Ud-daula.

  • The Battle of Buxar (1764) was the pivotal battle which was fought between English Forces, and a joint army of the Nawab of Oudh Shah Alam II, Nawab of Bengal, Mir Kasim, and Mughal Emperor.

  • The Treaty of Allahabad was signed on 12 August 1765, between the Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II, son of the late Emperor Alamgir II, and Robert, Lord Clive, of the East India Company, as a result of the Battle of Buxar of 22 October 1764.

  • The Third Battle of Panipat fought on January 14, 1761 between the Marathas and forces of the Afghan ruler Ahmad Shah Abdali and his allies was one of the biggest and most significant battles of the 18th century in India.

Source :- 84, 135 & 136 Page no 80, Spectrum’s A brief History of Modern India.

Q2 Match List I (Ruler) with List II (Capital) and select the correct answer using the code given below the list

              List I                                                     List II

  1. Chin Qilich Khan    Indore

  2. Jaswant Rao Holkar     Bengal

  3. Madho Rao Scindia                  Hyderabad

  4. Sarfaraz Khan     Gwalior

Code :

A    a   b  c  d

       2  1  3   4 

 

B    a   b  c  d

       3  2  1   4

C    a   b  c  d

      2   1  4  2  

D    a   b  c  d

       3   4  1  2

 

Answer d

Explanation

  • Mir Qamar-ud-din Khan Siddiqi Bayafandi (20 August 1671 – 1 June 1748) was a nobleman of Indian and Turkic descent and the founder of the Asaf Jahi dynasty.

  • He established the Hyderabad state, and ruled it from 1724 to 1748.

 

Q3 Consider the following statements

  1. Black Hole tragedy is related to battle of Buxar.

  2. After Battle of Plassey Mir Kasim became the Nawab of Bengal.

  3. Mir Jafar gave large sums of money but not the zamindari of 24 parganas to the English.

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Which of the above statement/s is/are  correct

  1. 1 & 2 Both

  2. 2 & 3 Both

  3. All the three are correct

  4. None of the above are correct

Answer d

Explanation :-

  • The battle of Plassey was preceded by an attack on British-controlled Calcutta by Nawab Siraj-ud-Daulah .

  • The prisoners who were captured at the siege of Calcutta were transferred by Siraj to the care of the officers of his guard, who confined them to the common dungeon of Fort William known as The Black Hole.

  • Siraj-ud-daula is believed to have imprisoned 146 English persons who were lodged in a very tiny room due to which 123 of them died of suffocation.

  • However, historians either do not believe this story, or say that the number of victims must have been much smaller.

  • Mir Jafar pretended loyalty to Alivardi Khan’s successor Siraj Ud Daulah, but betrayed him to the British in the battle of Plassey. A

  • fter Siraj Ud Daulah’s defeat and subsequent execution, Jafar achieved his long-pursued dream of gaining the throne, and was propped up by the British East India company as puppet Nawab.

  • Jafar paid 17,700,000 as compensation for the attack on Calcutta to the company plus the zamindari of 24 parganas to the English.

 

Sources :- Page no 91 & 92, Spectrum’s A brief History of Modern India.

                 

  http://murshidabad.net/history/history-topic-black-hole.htm

Q4.  Consider the following statements

  1. Mir Kasim shifted the capital from Murshidabad to Munger in Bihar.

  2. Battle of Buxar was fought between combined armies of Mir Kasim (Nawab of Bengal) & Shuja ud daula ( Nawab of awadh ) only against the Britishers.

  3. Robert Clive was the Governor general of Bengal when Battle of Buxar took place.

Which of the above statement/s is/are  correct

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 & 3 Both

  3. All the three are correct

  4. None of the above are correct

Answer a

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Explanation :-

  1. Mir Kasim was the ablest nawab among the successors of Alivardi Khan. After assuming power, Mir Kasim shifted the capital from Murshidabad to Munger in Bihar. The move was taken to allow a safe distance from the Company at Calcutta.

  2. The combined armies of Mir Kasim (Nawab of Bengal) , the Shuja ud Daula (Nawab of Awadh) and Shah Alam II (Mughal Emperor) were defeated by the English forces under Major Hector Munro at Buxar on October 22, 1764 in a closely contested battle. The English campaign against Mir Kasim was short but decisive.

  3. A survey of this period of British rule cannot be complete without a reference to Robert Clive, who joined the army after resigning from a clerk’s post. He was instrumental in laying the foundations of British power in India. He was made the Governor of Bengal twice from 1757 to 1760 and then from 1765 to 1767. He administered Bengal under the dual government system till his return to England where he allegedly committed suicide in 1774.

Sources :- Sources :- Page no 91 & 92, Spectrum’s A brief History of Modern India.

 

Q5.  In treaty of Allahabad Nawab Shuja ud Daula agreed to :-

  1. Surrender Allahabad and Kara to Emperor Shah Alam II

  2. Pay Rs 50 lakh to the Company as war indemnity

  3. Issue a farman granting the diwani of Bengal,Bihar and Orissa to the East India Company in lieu of an annual payment of Rs 26 lakh

  4. A provision of Rs 53 lakh to the Company in return for nizamat functions (military defence, police, and administration of justice) of the said provinces.

Which of the above statement/s is/are not correct

  1. 1 & 2 Both

  2. 3 & 4 Both

  3. All the four are correct

  4. None of the above are correct

Answer b

 

Explanation :- The Treaty of Allahabad

Robert Clive concluded two important treaties at Allahabadin August 1765—one with the  Nawab of Awadh and the other with the Mughal Emperor, Shah Alam II.

 

Nawab Shuja-ud-Daula agreed to:

(i) surrender Allahabad and Kara to Emperor Shah Alam II;

(ii) pay Rs 50 lakh to the Company as war indemnity; and

(iii) give Balwant Singh, Zamindar of Banaras, full possession of his estate.

 

Shah Alam II agreed to:

(i) reside at Allahabad, to be ceded to him by the Nawab of Awadh, under the Company’s protection;

(ii) issue a farman granting the diwani of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa to the East India Company in lieu of an annual payment of Rs 26 lakh; and

(iii) a provision of Rs 53 lakh to the Company in return for nizamat functions (military defence, police, and administration of justice) of the said provinces.

 

Sources :- Page no , Spectrum’s A brief History of Modern India.

 

Q6 Consider the following statements in respect of Dual System of Government in Bengal :-

  1. The rule of the two refers to the rule of Company and the Nawab.

  2. The rule of the two refers to the rule of Company and the British Crown.

  3. Police and judicial functions, came under the control of the Company.

  4. Robert Clive introduced the dual system of government and Warren Hastings did away with the dual system in 1772.

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct

  1. 1, 2 & 3

  2. 1, 3 & 4

  3. 2, 3 & 4

  4. All the four are correct

Answer b

Explanation :-

  • Dual Government in Bengal (1765-72) After the battle of Buxar, the East India Company became the real masters of Bengal.

  • Robert Clive introduced the dual system of government,e., the rule of the two—the Company and the Nawab—in Bengal in which both the diwani, i.e., collecting revenues, and nizamat, i.e., police and judicial functions, came under the control of the Company.

  • The Company exercised diwani rights as the diwan and the nizamat rights through its right to nominate the deputy subahdar. The Company acquired the diwani functions from the emperor and nizamat functions from the subahdar of Bengal.

  • The dual system led to an administrative breakdown and proved disastrous for the people of Bengal. Neither the Company nor the Nawab cared for administration and public welfare. Warren Hastings did away with the dual system in 1772.

Q7 Consider the following statements

  1. Haider Ali started his career as Horse men.

  2. Army Factory in Dindigul (now in Tamil Nadu) was set up by Haider Ali with the help of Britishers.

  3. The Marathas fought Third Battle of Panipat under Sadashivrao Bhau.

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct

  1. 1 only

  2. 1 & 3 Both

  3. 2 & 3 Both

  4. All the above are correct

Answer :- b

Explanation

  1. Haidar Ali, born in 1721 in an obscure family, started his career as a horseman in the Mysore army under the ministers, Nanjaraj and Devaraj. Though uneducated, he possessed a keen intellect and was a man of great energy and determination.

  2. Haidar Ali took the help of the French to set up an arms factory at Dindigul (now in Tamil Nadu), and also introduced Western methods of training for his army. He also started to use his considerable diplomatic skill to outmanoeuvre his opponents.

  3. Sadashiv Rao Bhau (4 August 1730 – 14 January 1761) was son of Chimaji Appa and Rakhmabai and the nephew of Peshwa Bajirao I. He served as the Sardar Senapati (Commander-in-Chief) of the Maratha army at the third battle of Panipat.

Q8. Consider the following statements

  1. Treaty of madras was signed on 2 april 1769 between Mysore and Marathas.

  2. The Treaty of Mangalore was signed between Tipu Sultan and the British East India Company on 11 March 1784.

  3. Lord Cornwallis was the Governor General of India during 2nd Anglo Mysore war.

Which of the above statement/s is/are not correct

  1. 1 only

  2. 1 & 3 Both

  3. 2 & 3 Both

  4. All the above are correct

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Answer :- b

Explanation :-

  1. There was complete chaos and panic at Madras forcing the English to conclude a very humiliating treaty with Haidar on April 4, 1769—Treaty of Madras. The treaty provided for the exchange of prisoners and mutual restitution of conquests. Haidar Ali was promised the help of the English in case he was attacked by any other power.

  2. Treaty of Mangalore Haidar Ali died of cancer on December 7, 1782. Now his son, Tipu Sultan, carried on the war for one year without any positive outcome. Fed up with an inconclusive war, both sides opted for peace, negotiating the Treaty of Mangalore (March, 1784) under which each party gave back the territories it had taken from the other.

  3. The Second Anglo–Mysore War was a conflict between the Kingdom of Mysore and the British East India Company from 1780 to 1784. Warren Hastings (6 December 1732 – 22 August 1818), an English statesman, was the first Governor of the Presidency of Fort William (Bengal), the head of the Supreme Council of Bengal, and thereby the first de facto Governor-General of India from 1773 to 1785.

Q9.Arrange these Treaties in order (increasing) of there occurence                                                       

  1. Treaty of Surat

  2. Treaty of Salbai       

  3. Treaty of Purandhar

  4. Treaty of Srirangapatinam   

  5. Treaty of Wadgaon

Code :

A    c   b  a  d  e

B    a   d  b  e  c

C    c   a  e  d   b

D    a   c  e  b  d

      

Answer:- d

Explanation:-

1.The Treaty of Surat (6 March 1775) was a treaty by which Raghunathrao, one of the claimants to the throne of the Peshwa, agreed to cede Salsette and Bassein Fort to the English, in consideration of being himself restored to Poona. The military operations that followed are known as the First Anglo-Maratha War.

2.The Treaty of Salbai was signed on 17 May 1782, by representatives of the Maratha Empire and the British East India Company after long negotiations to settle the outcome of the First Anglo-Maratha War.

  1. The British Calcutta Council, on the other side of India, condemned the Treaty of Surat (1775) and sent Colonel Upton to Pune to annul it and make a new treaty (Treaty of Purandhar, 1776) with the regency renouncing Raghunath and promising him a pension. The Bombay government rejected this and gave refuge to Raghunath.

  2. The Treaty of Srirangapatinam, signed on 18 March 1792, ended the Third Anglo-Mysore War. Its signatories included Lord Cornwallis on behalf of the British East India Company, representatives of the Nizam of Hyderabad and the Maratha Empire, and Tipu Sultan, the ruler of Mysore.

  3. The British were forced to sign the Treaty of Wadgaon on 16 Jan. 1779, a victory for the Marathas. Reinforcements from northern India, commanded by Colonel (later General) Thomas Wyndham Goddard, arrived too late to save the Bombay force.

Q10.Consider the following statements

  1. Banda Bahadur was defeated by Farrukhsiyar and put to death in 1716.

  2. In 1799, Ranjit Singh was appointed as the governor of Lahore by Zaman Shah, the ruler of Afghanistan.

  3. Ranjit Singh agreed to sign the Treaty of Amritsar (April 25, 1809) with the Company.

 

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct

 

  1. 1 only

  2. 1 & 3 Both

  3. 2 & 3 Both

  4. All the above are correct

Answer d

  1. After the murder of the last Sikh guru, Guru Govind Singh, a section of Sikhs under the leadership of Banda Bahadur revolted against the Mughals during the rule of Bahadur Shah. In 1715, Banda Bahadur was defeated by Farrukhsiyar and put to death in 1716.

  2. Afghanistan was also engulfed in a civil war due to a power struggle which went on for the next three decades. These events in the neighbouring regions were fully exploited by Ranjit Singh who followed a ruthless policy of ‘blood and iron’ and carved out for himself a kingdom in the central Punjab. In 1799, Ranjit Singh was appointed as the governor of Lahore by Zaman Shah, the ruler of Afghanistan. In 1805, Ranjit Singh acquired Jammu and Amritsar and thus the political capital (Lahore) and religious capital (Amritsar) of Punjab came under the rule of Ranjit Singh.

  3. Ranjit Singh offered to accept Metcalfe’s proposal of an offensive and defensive alliance on the condition that the English would remain neutral in case of a Sikh-Afghan war and would consider Ranjit Singh the sovereign of the entire Punjab including the Malwa (cis-Sutlej) territories. However, the negotiations failed. In the changed political scenario in which the Napoleonic danger receded and the English became more assertive, Ranjit Singh agreed to sign the Treaty of Amritsar (April 25, 1809) with the Company.

Q11. Match List I (Governor Generals) with List II (Events During their Regime) and select the correct answer using the code given below the list

              List I                                                     List II

  1. Warren Hastings            Introduction of Civil Services in India

  2. John Macpherson                     Battle of Kharda between Nizam and Marathas

  3. Charles Cornwallis           Second Rohilla War 1779

  4. John Shore             He was Acting Governor General

Code :

A    a   b  c  d

       3  4  1   2 

B    a   b  c  d

       4  2  1  3

C    a   b  c  d

      4   3  1  2  

D    a   b  c  d

       3   2  1  4

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Answer A

Explanation :-

 

Q12. The first state to sign the treaty of subsidiary alliance was

  1. Hyderabad

  2. Mysore

  3. Tanjore

  4. Awadh

Answer A

Explanation :- States which Accepted Alliance

The Indian princes who accepted the subsidiary system were: the Nizam of Hyderabad (September 1798 and 1800), the ruler of Mysore (1799), the ruler of Tanjore (October 1799), the Nawab of Awadh (November 1801), the Peshwa (December 1801), the Bhonsle Raja of Berar (December 1803), the Sindhia (February 1804), the Rajput states of Jodhpur, Jaipur, Macheri, Bundi and the ruler of Bharatpur (1818). The Holkars were the last Maratha confederation to accept the Subsidiary Alliance in 1818.

Sources :- Page no 133 , Spectrum’s A brief History of Modern India 2017 Edition

 

Q13  Consider the following statements

  1. Lord William Bentick was the Governor General when Doctrine of Lapse was articulated.

  2. Treaty of Sagauli was done after Anglo Nepalese war.

  3. The annexation of Burma into British India was in 1885.

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct

 

  1. 1 only

  2. 1 & 3 Both

  3. 2 & 3 Both

  4. All the above are correct

Answer d

Explanation :-

  1. The policy is most commonly associated with Lord Dalhousie, who was the Governor General of the East India Company in India between 1848 and 1856. However, it was articulated by the Court of Directors of the East India Company as early as 1834 (Lord William bentick was the governor general) and several smaller states were already annexed under this doctrine before Dalhousie took over the post of Governor-General. Dalhousie used the policy most vigorously and extensively, though, so it is generally associated with him. The accession of Lord Dalhousie inaugurated a new chapter in the history of British India. He functioned as the Governor-General of India from 1848-1856.

  2. Anglo-Nepalese Relations The Gorkhas wrested control of Nepal from the successors of Ranjit Malla of Bhatgaon in 1760. They began to expand their dominion beyond the mountains. They found it easier to expand in the southern direction, as the north was well defended by the Chinese. In 1801, the English annexed Gorakhpur which brought the Gorkhas’ boundary and the Company’s boundary together. The conflict started due to the Gorkhas’ capture of Butwal and Sheoraj in the period of Lord Hastings (1813-23). The war, ended in the Treaty of Sagauli, 1816 which was in favour of the British.

  3. 3. In the beginning of the 19th century, Burma was a free country and wanted to expand westward. The expansionist urges of the British, fuelled by the lure of the forest resources of Burma, market for British manufactures in Burma and the need to check French ambitions in Burma and the rest of South-East Asia, resulted in three Anglo-Burmese Wars, and in the end, the annexation of Burma into British India in 1885.

Sources Page no 144,145,146 Spectrum’s A brief History of Modern India 2017 Edition

Q14. Consider the following statements

  1. Indian Government Acquired Chumbi Valley for 75 yrs as a security for payment after Anglo Nepalese war.

  2. Treaty of Yandabo as signed after Second Anglo Burmese war.

  3. Four war was fought between Britishers and Burmese .

Which of the above statement/s is/are not correct

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  1. 1 only

  2. 1 & 3 Both

  3. 2 & 3 Both

  4. All the above

Answer d

Explanation :-

  1. First Burma War (1824-26)

The first war with Burma was fought when the Burmese expansion westwards and occupation of Arakan and Manipur, and the threat to Assam and the Brahmaputra Valley led to continuous friction along the ill-defined border between Bengal and Burma, in the opening decades of the nineteenth century. The British expeditionary forces occupied Rangoon in May 1824 and reached within 72 km of the capital at Ava. Peace was established in 1826 with the Treaty of Yandabo which provided that the Government of Burma.

 

  1. At Treaty of Lhasa (1904) Younghusband dictated terms to the Tibetan officials which

provided that— Tibet would pay an indemnity of Rs 75 lakh at the rate of one lakh rupees per annum; as a security for payment, the Indian Government would occupy the Chumbi Valley (territory between Bhutan and Sikkim) for 75 years

 

  1. There have been three Burmese Wars or Anglo-Burmese Wars:

 

First Anglo-Burmese War (1824 to 1826)

Second Anglo-Burmese War (1852 to 1853)

Third Anglo-Burmese War (1885)

Sources :- Page no 144,145,146 Spectrum’s A brief History of Modern India 2017 Edition

 

Q 15. Arrange these Events in order (increasing) of there occurence                                                     

  1. First Anglo Burmese War

  2. First Anglo Afghan War

  3. Anglo Nepalese War

  4. Treaty of Gandamak

  5. Durand agreement

Code :

A    c   e  b  d  a

B    a   e  c  b  d

C    c   a  b  d  e

D    a  e  c  b  d

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Answer C

Explanation :-

  1. There have been three Burmese Wars or Anglo-Burmese Wars:

First Anglo-Burmese War (1824 to 1826)

Second Anglo-Burmese War (1852 to 1853)

Third Anglo-Burmese War (1885)

 

  1. There have been three Anglo-Afghan War:

First Anglo-Afghan War (1839–1842)

Second Anglo-Afghan War (1878–1880)

Third Anglo-Afghan War (1919)

 

  1. The Anglo-Nepalese War (1814–16), also known as the Gurkha War, was fought between the Kingdom of Gorkha (present-day Federal Democratic Republic of Nepal) and the East India Company as a result of border disputes and ambitious expansionism of both the belligerent parties. The war ended with the signing of the Treaty of Sugauli in 1816, which ceded some Nepalese controlled territory to the British.

  2. Treaty of Gandamak (May 1879) The treaty signed after the Second-Anglo Afghan War provided that:

  • the Amir conduct his foreign policy with the advice of Government of India;

  • a permanent British resident be stationed at Kabul;

  • and the Government of India give Amir all support against foreign aggression, and an annual subsidy.

  1. E. During 1891-92 the British occupation of Hunza, Nagar in Gilgit valley, which were passes commanding communications with Chitral, alarmed Abdur Rahman (Amir of Afghanistan). A compromise was finally reached by drawing a boundary line known as Durand Line between Afghan and British territories. Amir received some districts and his subsidy was increased. But the Durand Agreement (1893) failed to keep peace and soon there were tribal uprisings. To check these, a permanent British garrison was established at Chitral and troops posted to guard Malakand Pass, but tribal uprisings continued till 1898.

Q16. Consider the following statements

  1. The disastrous famine of 1770 provoked the Sanyasis Revolt.

  2. Sanyasi Revolt was also called as Fakir Rebellion.

  3. Anandmath a semi-historical novel by Rabindra Nath Tagore, is based on the Sanyasi revolt.

  4. Bankim Chandra Chatopadhyay wrote a novel, Devi Chaudhurani, based on Sanyasi revolt.

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct

  1. 1 & 3 only

  2. 1,2 & 3 only

  3. 1,2 & 4 only

  4. All the above are correct

Answer c

Explanation :-

Sanyasi Revolt (1763-1800)

  • The disastrous famine of 1770 and the harsh economic order of the British compelled a group of sanyasis in Eastern India to fight the British yoke.

  • Originally peasants, even some evicted from land, these sanyasis were joined by a large number of dispossessed small zamindars, disbanded soldiers and rural poor.

  • They raided Company factories and the treasuries, and fought the Company’s forces. It was only after a prolonged action that Warren Hastings could subdue the sanyasis.

  • Equal participation of Hindus and Muslims characterised the uprisings, sometimes referred to as the Fakir Rebellion.

  • Majnum Shah (or Majnu Shah), Chirag Ali, Musa Shah, Bhawani Pathak and Debi Chaudhurani were important leaders.

  • Debi Chaudhurani’s participation recognises the women’s role in early resistances against the British. Anandamath, a semi-historical novel by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay, is based on the Sanyasi Revolt. Bankim Chandra also wrote a novel, Devi Chaudhurani, as he saw the importance of women too taking up the struggle against an alien rule that posed a threat to traditional Indian values.

Sources :- Page no 152, 153 Spectrum’s A brief History of Modern India 2017 Edition

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Q17. Consider the following statements

  1. Wazir Ali Khan, with the help of the British, had ascended the throne in September 1797.

  2. However, in January 1799, he killed a British resident, Geogre Frederik Cherry.

  3. Arthur Wellesley requested the Raja of Jaipur to extradite Wazir Ali.

We are talking about which Event ?

  1. Uprisings in Ganjam and Gumsur.

  2. Civil Uprisings in Gorakhpur, Basti and Bahraich.

  3. Civil Rebellion in Awadh.

  4. Uprisings in Palamau

Answer C

Explanation :- Civil Rebellion in Awadh (1799)

  • Wazir Ali Khan, the fourth Nawab of Awadh, with the help of the British, had ascended the throne in September 1797.

  • But very soon his relations with the British became sour and he got replaced by his uncle, Saadat Ali Khan II. Wazir Ali Khan was granted a pension in Benares. However, in January 1799, he killed a British resident, Geogre Frederik Cherry, who had invited him to lunch.

  • Wazir Ali’s guards killed two other Europeans and even attacked the Magistrate of Benares.

  • The whole incident became famous as the Massacre of Benares. Wazir Ali was able to assemble an army of several thousand men which was defeated by General Erskine.

  • Wazir Ali fled to Butwal and was granted asylum by the ruler of Jaipur. Arthur Wellesley requested the Raja of Jaipur to extradite Wazir Ali.

  • Wazir Ali was extradited on the condition that he would neither be hanged nor be put in fetters. After surrender in December 1799, he was placed in confinement at Fort William, Calcutta.

 

CHAPTER-5

Expansion and Consolidation of British Power in India

Q1.Consider the following about the Treaty of Madras 1769.

  1. It was signed between the Mysore and the British East India Company.

  2. The treaty allowed for the annexation of the signing Kingdom by the British.

  3. It brought an end to the First Carnatic War.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 and 3 only

  3. 1 and 3 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer b

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Treaty of Madras was a peace agreement which brought an end to the First Anglo-Mysore War. Fighting had broken out in 1767 and the forces of Hyder Ali had come close to capturing Madras at one point.

Statement 2 is incorrect The Treaty contained a clause requiring the British to assist Hyder Ali if he was attacked by his neighbours. Hyder felt this agreement was broken when he didn’t receive any help when Mysore went to war with the Marathas in 1771.

Bad faith arising from the broken clause may have been a reason behind the outbreak of the Second Anglo-Mysore War a decade later

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Q2.Which among the following statements are correct regarding Ranjit Singh?

  1. He was born in Ramghariya misl.

  2. He had signed a treaty of peace and friendship with the British in 1809 known as the Treaty

of Amritsar.

  1. Amritsar was his administrative capital.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 and 3 only

  3. 1 and 3 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer d

Explanation:

  • At the time of the birth of Ranjit Singh (November 2, 1780), there were 12 important misls—Ahluwaliya, Bhangi, Dallewalia, Faizullapuria, Kanhaiya, Krorasinghia, Nakkai, Nishaniya, Phulakiya, Ramgarhiya Sukharchakiya, and Shaheed. The central administration of a misl was based on Gurumatta Sangh which was essentially a political, social and economic system. Ranjit Singh was the son of Mahan Singh, the leader of the Sukarchakiya misl.

  • In the changed political scenario in which the Napoleonic danger receded and the English became more assertive, Ranjit Singh agreed to sign the Treaty of Amritsar (April 25, 1809) with the Company.

  • Lahore was his administrative capital.

 

Q3. Consider the following statements:

  1. The Battle of Wandiwash was the decisive battle of the Second Carnatic War.

  2. The Second Carnatic War was fought between the Dutch and the Portuguese due to political

interference by them in Hyderabad and Carnatic.

  1. The Treaty of Aix-La-Chapelle was signed between the English and the French after the Third

Carnatic War.

Which of the statements given above are incorrect?

  1. 2 only

  2. 1 and 2 only

c 2 and 3 only

  1. 1, 2 and 3

Answer d

Explanation

First Carnatic War (1740-48)

  • Background Carnatic was the name given by the Europeans to the Coromandel coast and its hinterland. The First Carnatic War was an extension of the Anglo-French War in Europe which was caused by the Austrian War of Succession.

  • Result: The First Carnatic War ended in 1748 when the Treaty of Aix-La Chapelle was signed bringing the Austrian War of Succession to a conclusion. Under the terms of this treaty, Madras was handed back to the English, and the French, in turn, got their territories in North America.

Second Carnatic War (1749-54)

  • Background The background for the Second Carnatic War was provided by rivalry in India. Dupleix, the French governor who had successfully led the French forces in the First Carnatic War, sought to increase his power and French political influence in southern India by interfering in local dynastic disputes to defeat the English.

  • Result :The French authorities, annoyed at the heavy financial losses that Dupleix’s policy involved, decided to recall him in 1754.

Third Carnatic War (1758-63)

  • Background In Europe, when Austria wanted to recover Silesia in 1756, the Seven Years War (1756-63) started. Britain and France were once again on opposite sides. Battle of Wandiwash The decisive battle of the Third Carnatic War was won by the English on January 22, 1760 at Wandiwash (or Vandavasi) in Tamil Nadu. Result and Significance The Third Carnatic War proved decisive. Although the Treaty of Peace of Paris (1763) restored to the French their factories in India, the French political influence disappeared after the war.

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Q4. Which among the following were not the reasons for the Battle of Plassey?

  1. The British support to the claim of Mehru Nihsa on the throne of Bengal.

  2. Fortification of Fort William and mounting guns on the walls of the Fort.

  3. Abolition of custom duties from entire Bengal, resulting into loss of revenue for the British.

  4. The misinterpretation of imperial Farman of 1737 by the East India Company.

Answer c

Statement c is incorrect: Siraj-ud-daula did not abolish custom duty and thus it was not an issue.

 

Q5.Which of the following is correctly matched?

  1. First Anglo-Mysore War: Treaty of Madras

  2. First Anglo-Maratha War: Treaty of Salbai

  3. First Anglo-Sikh War: Treaty of Lahore

  4. First Carnatic War :   Treaty of Aix-La-Chapelle

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only

  2. 1,2 and 3 only

  3. 1, 3 and 4 only

  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer d

Explanation:

First Anglo-Mysore War ended at Madras forcing the English to conclude a very humiliating treaty with Haidar on April 4, 1769—Treaty of Madras. The treaty provided for the exchange of prisoners and mutual restitution of conquests. Haidar Ali was promised the help of the English in case he was attacked by any other power

First Anglo-Maratha War (1775-82) : Treaty of Salbai (1782): End of the First Phase of the Struggle Warren Hastings, the Governor-General in Bengal, rejected the Treaty of Wadgaon and sent a large force of soldiers under Colonel Goddard who captured Ahmedabad in February 1779, and Bassein in December 1780.

First ANGLO sIKH wAR: Treaty of Lahore (March 8, 1846) The end of the first Anglo-Sikh War forced the Sikhs to sign a humiliating treaty on March 8, 1846.

First Carnatic War (1740-48): The First Carnatic War was an extension of the Anglo-French War in Europe which was caused by the Austrian War of Succession. The First Carnatic War ended in 1748 when the Treaty of Aix-La Chapelle was signed bringing the Austrian War of Succession to a conclusion. Under the terms of this treaty, Madras was handed back to the English, and the French, in turn, got their territories in North America

 

Q6. Arrange the following chronologically.

  1. Abolition Of Sati

  2. The Subsidiary Alliance

  3. The Treaty of Lahore

  4. Abolition of Slavery

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. a) 3214

  2. b) 1234

  3. c) 2143

  4. d) 4231

Answer c

Explanation:

 

  • Abolition of sati and other cruel rites (1829).

  • The doctrine of subsidiary alliance was introduced by Lord Wellesley, British Governor-General in India from 1798 to 1805.

  • After the defeat of the Sikhs at the Battle of Sobraon the British were able to march into Lahore without any further battles. The Treaty of Lahore was signed in 1846 after the First Sikh War.

  • The administration was urged to take steps to ameliorate the conditions of slaves and to ultimately abolish slavery. (Slavery was abolished in 1843.)

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CHAPTER-6

People’s Resistance Against British Before 1857

Q1.Consider  the following concerning Queen Victoria’s Proclamation 1858.?

1) It ended the Company’s rule in India and the Queen’s assumption of the Government of India.

2) It assured the Indian people equal and impartial protection of law and freedom of religion and social practices.

3) The Proclamation of Queen Victoria gave a practical shape to the Act of 1858.

4) It contemplated the the interests of natives will be given priority over that Britain and other European powers..

Which of the above statements are correct

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. a) 1, 2 and 3 only

  2. b) 1,3 and 4 only

  3. c) 2 and 3 only

  4. d) 1,2 and 4 only

Answer a

Explanation:

  • In November 1858 the Proclamation of Queen Victoria was announced by Lord Canning at Allahabad.

  • royal Proclamation was translated into Indian languages and publicly read in many important places.

  • It announced the end of Company’s rule in India and the Queen’s assumption of the Government of India. It endorsed the treaty made by the Company with Indian princes and promised to respect their rights,dignity and honour

  • It assured the Indian people equal and impartial protection of law and freedom of religion and social practices. The Proclamation of Queen Victoria significantly influenced the Act of 1858 whereby the crown was given the authority over India, rather than the company.

  • It did not deal with the issue of banning trade and investments, which continued later too. So, Statement 4 is incorrect

Q2) Which of the following factors may  have contributed to the Battle of Plassey?

  1. Opposition of the local people to the activities of the East India Company.

  2. British practice of building settlements and large forts in Bengal.

  3. Refusal of Bengal Nawabs to grant the British concession and tributes in trade.

  4. Political interference of the British in Bengal

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 and 2 only

  2. 1,3 and 4 only

  3. 2,3 and 4 only

  4. 3 only

Answer  c

Explanation:

The Battle of Plassey was essentially due the conflicts between the Bengal Nawab and the East India Company. There is no evidence to show that locals were opposed the East India company and it triggered the war.

So, Statement 1 is incorrect.

Statement 2 was opposed by the Bengal Nawabs several times and the Nawabs had even invaded British fortifications in Bengal.

Statement 3 led the British to install a puppet Nawab in a coup. It failed, and an infuriated Sirajuddaullah marched to the company’s Calcutta fort.

Thus, Statement 4 was also a cause behind the war

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CHAPTER-7

The Revolt of 1857

  1. Which of the statements given below is/are correct regarding the reorganisation of army after 1857 revolt:

  2. The percentage of Europeans in the army was decreased.

  3. To create divisions among various groups in army, some races like Sikhs, Gurkhas were declared non martial.

Select the correct answer using code given below.

 (a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer a

The British could no longer depend on Indian loyalty, so the number of Indian soldiers was drastically reduced even as the number of European soldiers was increased European monopoly over key geographical locations and key departments like artillery, tanks was maintained to safeguard key locations and weaponry.

Statement 2 is incorrect. To create divisions among various groups in army some races like Sikhs, Gurkhas were declared martial and others who participated in the 1857 revolt such as soldiers from Awadh, Bengal etc. declared non martial.

 

2.Which of the following war/s became a motivation for 1857 revolt?

  1. French Revolution

  2. First Afghan war

  3. Crimean War

  4. Boer wars

Select the correct answer using code given below.

(a) 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer b

Statement (1)-The French Revolution-(1789-1799).

Statement (2) and (3) The British army suffered major reverses in the First Afghan war(1838-42) and in the Crimean war (1854-56), which shattered the general belief in the invincibility of the British regime.

Statement (4) Boers war-(1899-1902)  where the British faced reverses and Japan’s victory

Over  Russia (1905) demolished myths of European invincibility.

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  1. Which of the following pairs have been matched correctly with respect to revolt of 1857.

  2. Lucknow : Begum Hazrat Mahal

  3. Kanpur: Nana Saheb

  4. Faizabad : Azimulah

  5. Delhi : General Bakht Khan

  6. Bareilly : Khan Bahadur

 

Select the correct answer using code given below.

(a) 1,3 and 4 only

(b) 2 , 3 and 5 only

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 only

Answer d

Centres of Revolt and Leaders

Delhi – General Bakht Khan

Kanpur – Nana Saheb

Lucknow – Begum Hazrat Mahal

Bareilly – Khan Bahadur

Bihar – Kunwar Singh

Faizabad – Maulvi Ahmadullah

Jhansi – Rani Laxmibai

Baghpat – Shah Mal

At Delhi the nominal and symbolic leadership belonged to the Mughal emperor, Bahadur Shah, but the real command lay with a court of soldiers headed by General Bakht Khan who had led the revolt of Bareilly troops and brought them to Delhi.

At Kanpur, the natural choice was Nana Saheb, the adopted son of the last peshwa, Baji Rao II. He was refused the family title and banished from Poona, and was living near Kanpur.Sir Hugh Wheeler, commanding the station, surrendered on June 27, 1857 and was killed on the same day.

Begum Hazrat Mahal took over the reigns at Lucknow where the rebellion broke out on June 4, 1857 and popular sympathy was overwhelmingly in favour of the deposed nawab. Her son, Birjis Qadir, was proclaimed the nawab and a regular administration was organised with important offices shared equally by Muslims and Hindus.

At Bareilly, Khan Bahadur, a descendant of the former ruler of Rohilkhand, was placed in command. Not enthusiastic about the pension being granted by the British, he organized an army of 40,000 soldiers and offered stiff resistance to the British.

In Bihar, the revolt was led by Kunwar Singh, the zamindar of Jagdishpur. An old man in his seventies, he nursed a grudge against the British who had deprived him of his estates. He unhesitatingly joined the sepoys when they reached Arrah from Dinapore (Danapur).

Maulvi Ahmadullah of Faizabad was another outstanding leader of the revolt. He was a native of Madras and had moved to Faizabad in the north where he fought a stiff battle against the British troops.

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  1. Which of the following changes happened in the army after 1857 revolt?

  2. Caste loyalties were encouraged among army men.

  3. The old policy of excluding Indians from officer corps was abolished.

  4. Discrimination on the basis of religion was practised during recruitment.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Answer d

Explanation: The British could no longer depend on Indian loyalty, so the number of Indian soldiers was drastically reduced even as the number of European soldiers was increased. The concept of divide and rule was adopted with separate units being created on the basis of caste/community/region.

 All higher posts in the army and the artillery departments were reserved for the Europeans.

5.Consider the following statements:

  1. A general amnesty was granted to all the rebels of the 1857 revolt.

  2. The additional post of Secretary of State was created.

  3. It abolished the Board of Control and Court of Directors.

  4. Doctrine of Lapse was abandoned

Which of the statements given above regarding the Queens proclamation 1858 is/are  correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2,3 and 4 only

(d) 4 only

Answer c

A Royal Durbar was held at Allahabad in November 1, 1858. A proclamation was issued by Queen Victoria. It was read at the Durbar by Lord Canning, who was the last Governor General and the first Viceroy of India. The important features of the Queen’s Proclamation were the following: The Act laid down that henceforth India shall be governed by and in the name of the Queen.

It abolished the Board of Control and the Court of Directors. The post of a Secretary of State was created. He was to be assisted by a Council of India which was to consist of fifteen members. The Doctrine of Lapse was cancelled and the British stopped the policy of annexation.

A general amnesty (pardon) was granted to the rebels except those who were directly involved in killing the British subjects.

The office of the Governor General was changed to that of Viceroy of India.

 

  1. Which of the following concerning Queen Victoria’s Proclamation 1858 is correct

  2. It gave the Indian people equal protection of law and freedom of religion and social practices.

  3. The Proclamation of Queen Victoria was the soul of the Act of 1858.

  4. It announced the end of Company’s rule and the Queen’s assumption of the Government of India.

  5. It announced that Britain would not trade or invest any further with India without the permission of the local people.

Which of the statements given above regarding the Queens proclamation 1858 is/are  correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1,2 and 3 only

(c) 2,3 and 4 only

(d) 4 only

 

Answer b

Explanation: In November 1858 the Proclamation of Queen Victoria was announced by Lord Canning at Allahabad.

This royal Proclamation was translated into Indian languages and publicly read in many important places. It announced the end of Company’s rule in India and the Queen’s assumption of the Government of India. It endorsed the treaty made by the Company with Indian princes and promised to respect their rights, dignity and honour.

It assured the Indian people equal and impartial protection of law and freedom of religion and social practices. The Proclamation of Queen Victoria significantly influenced the Act of 1858 whereby the crown was given the authority over India, rather than the company.

It did not deal with the issue of banning trade and investments, which continued later too. So, Statemnet 4  is incorrect.

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Q7.Consider the following about causes of tribal movements in India

  1. Commercialization and strengthening of already present tendencies towards outsider penetration of tribal areas.

  2. Christian missions, expectedly, were active in the tribal areas

  3. British forced absolute private property hence joint ownership grew tensions within tribal society.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. a) 1 only

  2. b) 2 and 3 only

  3. c) 1 and 3 only

  4. d) 1, 2 and 3.

Answer d

Explanation:

  • Outsiders from the plains Called the dikus, they were hated by the Santhals of Jharkhand.

  • Christian missioneries were active in many tribal areas (particularly in Bihar and the Assam hills), bringing education and some promise of social ascent, but often provoking an interesting variety of reactions which included hostility as well as attempts to use some Christian tenets in anti-foreign ways.

  • khuntkatti tenure in Chota Nagpur was a system of joint ownership which was destroyed by the British inciting severe discontentment.

  • A new but increasingly important factor from the 1870s and ’80s was the tightening of control by the colonial state over forest zones for revenue purposes.

 

Q8. Which of the following is known as the Indian Rebels manifesto?

  1. Azamgarh manifesto

b.Lahore  Declaration

  1. Delhi proclamation

  2. Agra Declaration

Answer a

Azamgarh Proclamaiton: This proclamation or manifesto was published in the Delhi Gazette on 29 September 1857. The author was most probably Firoz Shah, a grandson of the Mughal Emperor, who fought against the British in Lucknow and Awadh (Oudh).

In this appeal to the people , to whom, as distinguished from the army, it was specially addressed, there was doubtless much of truth mingled with error; and, coming from the highest authority at the time, impressed with the royal seal and titles of the king himself, it confirmed and strengthened the sense of injustice which the natives were already too prone to believe they suffered under

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CHAPTER-8

Socio-Religious Reform Movements: General Features

Q1. Consider the following statements, with reference to Tatvabodhini Sabha,

  1. It promoted a systematic study of India’s past in Bengali language

  2. It promoted rational thinking and outlook amongst the intellectuals.

  3. It was founded by Ravindranath Tagore.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

Answer c

Explanation:

  • Debendra Nath Tagore headed the Tattvabodhini Sabha (founded in 1839) which, along with its organ Tattvabodhini Patrika in Bengali, was devoted to the systematic study of India’s past with a rational outlook and to the propagation of Rammohan’s ideas.

  • Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Source Page 259 Modern Spectrum (PDF)

 

Q2. Arrange the following events in correct chronological order:

  1. Formation of Atmiya Sabha

  2. Formation of Prarthana Samaj.

  3. Formation of Tatvabodhini Sabha.

  4. Satya Shodhak Samaj

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1-2-3-4

(b) 2-4-1-3

(c) 1-3-2-4

(d) 1-3-4-2

 

Answer c

Explanation:

  • In 1814, Ram Mohun Roy set up the Atmiya Sabha (or Society of Friends) in Calcutta to propagate the monotheistic ideals of the Vedanta and to campaign against idolatry, caste rigidities, meaningless rituals and other social ills.

  • Tagore headed the Tattvabodhini Sabha (founded in 1839) which, along with its organ Tattvabodhini Patrika in Bengali, was devoted to the systematic study of India’s past with a rational outlook and to the propagation of Rammohan’s ideas.

  • In 1867, Keshab Chandra Sen helped Atmaram Pandurang found the Prarthana Samaj in Bombay.

  • JR Phule founded the Satyashodhak Samaj (Truth Seekers’ Society) in 1873, with the leadership of the samaj coming from the backward classes, malis, telis, kunbis, saris and dhangars.

Source Chapter  9  Spectrum

 

 

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Q3. The emancipation of the lower castes and backward classes was the primary program/aim

of which of the following?

  1. Ramakrishna Mission

  2. Satya Shodhak Samaj

  3. Servants of India Society

  4. Prarthana Samaj

  5. Sudharak

  6. Self-Respect Movement

 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. a) 1, 2 , 4 and 5 only

  2. b) 2 , 5 and 6 only

  3. c) 1, 3 ,5 and 6 only

  4. d) All of the above

 

Answer b

Explanation:

  • Prarthana Samaj was founded by Atmaram Pandurang with the help of Keshav Chandra Sen in 1867, with an aim to make people believe in one God and worship only one God.

  • The purpose of Satya Shodhak Samajwas to liberate the Shudra and Untouchable castes from exploitation and oppression

  • The Self-Respect Movement is a movement with the aim of achieving a society where backward castes have equal human rights and encouraging backward castes to have selfrespect in the context of a caste-based society that considered them to be a lower end of the hierarchy.

  • The Ramkrishna Mission conducts extensive work in health care, disaster relief, rural management, elementary and higher education and culture.

  • Gopal Krishna Gokhale (1866-1915), a liberal leader of the Indian National Congress, founded the Servants of India Society in 1905 with the help of M.G. Ranade. The aim of the society was to train national missionaries for the service of India; to promote, by all constitutional means, the true interests of the Indian people; and to prepare a cadre on selfless workers who were to devote their lives to the cause of the country in a religious spirit.

  • GK Agarkar started his own periodical, Sudharak, which spoke against untouchability and the caste system

 

Q4.The major reason for split in Arya Samaj was

  1. Converting people from other faiths to Hinduism

  2. Vedic sanctity of widow remarriage and its social status

  3. Ideals of brahmacharya for priests

  4. On question of eating meat.

Answer d

Explanation: Arya Samaj is a religious reform movement founded by Swami Dayananda in 1875. He promoted the Vedas. Dayananda emphasised the ideals of brahmacharya (chastity) for priests. Dayanand died in 1883. Arya Samaj grew after his death mainly in Punjab

The Arya Samaj split into two in Punjab after 1893 on the question of eating meat. The group that refrained from meat was called the Mahatma group and the one favoring consumption of meat as the “Cultured Party”.

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Q5. Who was against the opinion of abolition of sati?

  1. Bhawani Charan Bannerji

  2. Radha kant Deb

  3. Brijeshchandra Mukherjee

  4. Keshab Chandra Sen

Which of the names given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

Answer d

Explanation: Bhawani Charan Bannerji along with Radhakant Des led a movement against
abolition of sati.

Q6. Consider the following statements:

  1. Arhar movement started under the leadership of Maulana Muhammad Ali.

  2. It was started in synchronous with the Aligarh Movement.

  3. It advocated active participation in the nationalist movement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer c

Explanation: 

  • Ahrar Movement was a movement founded in 1910 under the leadership of Maulana Muhammad Ali, Hakim Ajmal Khan, Hasan Imam, Maulana Zafar Ali Khan and Mazhar-ul-Haq. Hence, statement 1 is

  • It was started in opposition to the loyalist politics of Aligarh Movemen Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

  • As it was moved by modern ideas of self-governance, its members advocated active participation in the nationalist movement. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

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CHAPTER-9

A General Survey of Socio-Cultural Reform Movements

Q1.Which of the following is/are incorrect regarding Allahabad High Court?

  1. The Allahabad High Court was established in 1935, after the government of India act 1935

  2. .It has the highest number of judges of any High courts in India.

  3. It is third-oldest High Court in India after Calcutta and Bombay established under Indian High Courts Act 1861.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. a) 1 and 3 only

  2. b) 1 and 2 only

  3. c) 2 and 3 only

  4. d) All of the above

Answer a

Explanation:

B y the Indian High Courts Act passed by British Parliament in 1861, provision was made, not only for the replacement of the Supreme Courts of Calcutta, Madras and Bombay and for the establishment of High Courts in their places, but for the establishment of a High Court by Letters Patent in any other part of Her Majesty’s territories not already included in the jurisdiction of another High Court. In the year 1866, the High Court of Judicature for the North-Western Provinces came into existence at Agra under Letters Patent of the 17th March, 1866, replacing the old Sudder Diwanny Adawlat.

Hence statement 1  and 3 are incorrect

Sir Walter Morgan, Barrister-at-Law and Mr. Simpson were appointed the first Chief Justice and the first Registrar respectively of High Court of North-Western Provinces.

The seat of the High Court for the North-Western Provinces was shifted from Agra to Allahabad in 1869 and its designation was altered to ‘the High Court of Judicature at Allahabad’ by a supplementary Letters patent issued on March 11, 1919.

Statement  2 is correct: At present, sanctioned strength of Judges of the High Court of Judicature at Allahabad is 160 highest for any high court in India.

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Q2. Consider the following statements with reference to Social reforms in 19th century:

Assertion (A): The social reform movements were linked to the religious Reforms

Reason (R): Almost  all social ills like untouchability and gender-based inequity derived legitimacy from religion in one way or the other

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) A is correct, and R is an appropriate explanation for A

(b) A is correct, but R is NOT an appropriate explanation for A

(c) A is correct, but R is incorrect

(d) A and R both are incorrect

Answer a

Explanation:

The humanistic ideals of social equality and the equal worth of all individuals which inspired the newly educated middle class influenced the field of social reform in a major way.

The social reform movements were linked to the religious reforms primarily because nearly all social ills like untouchability and gender-based inequity derived legitimacy from religion in one way or the other. In later years, though, the social reform movement gradually dissociated itself from religion and adopted a secular approach.

Q3. Which the following statements with reference to Social reforms in 19th century is incorrect:

  1. Christian missionaries were instrumental in social reforms

  2. National freedom movement too provided leadership to social reforms

  3. Regional language was widely used in reform movements

  4. Social reforms were secular in nature

Answer d

Explanation:  

  • To reach the masses, the reformers used the Indian languages to propagate their views. They used a variety of media—novels, dramas, poetry, short stories, the press and, in the 1930s and later on, the cinema—to spread their opinions.

  • In the beginning, organisations such as the Social Conference, Servants of India Society and the Christian missionaries were instrumental in social reform

  • In later years, especially with the onset of the twentieth century, the national movement provided the leadership and organisation for social reform.

  • The social reform movements were linked to the religious reforms primarily because nearly all social ills like untouchability and gender-based inequity derived legitimacy from religion in one way or the other. Hence Social reforms were not secular in Nature

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Q4. Consider tHe following statements regarding the abolition of Sati

  1. Agitation against Sati practice was led by Ram Mohun Roy

  2. Sati was abolished in Bengal in 1829

  3. Sati was abolished during the period of Lord William Bentick

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. a) 1 and 3 only

  2. b) 1 and 2 only

  3. c) 2 and 3 only

  4. d) All of the above

 

Answer d

Explanation:

 Abolition of Sati Influenced by the frontal attack launched by the enlightened Indian reformers led by Raja Rammohan Roy, the government declared the practice of sati illegal and punishable by criminal courts as culpable homicide.

The regulation of 1829 (Regulation XVII, A.D. 1829 of the Bengal Code) was applicable in the first instance to Bengal  Presidency alone, but was extended in slightly modified forms to Madras and Bombay Presidencies in 1830.

 

 

Q5. Consider tHe following statements regarding the female infanticide

1.Practice of female infanticide immediately after their birth was a common practice among Tribals of Khasi Hills.

  1. The Bengal regulations of 1795 and 1804 declared infanticide illegal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. a) 1 only

  2. b) 2 only

  3. c) Both 1 and 2

  4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Answer b

Explanation:

The practice of murdering female infants immediately after their birth was a common practice among upper class Bengalis and Rajputs who considered females to be an economic burden. The Bengal regulations of 1795 and 1804 declared infanticide illegal and equivalent to murder. An Act passed in 1870 made it compulsory for parents to register the birth of all babies and provided for verification of female children for some years after birth, particularly in areas where the custom was resorted to in utmost secrecy.

Females in tribal culture are not considered as burden as most tribal societies are egalitarian in nature.

 

Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the widow remarriage in 19th century in India

1.Brahmo Samaj was not associated with Widow Remarriage movement.

  1. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar was vocal proponent of Widow Remarriage

  2. Hindu Widows’ Remarriage Act, 1856, legalised marriage of widows

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. a) 1 and 3 only

  2. b) 1 and 2 only

  3. c) 2 and 3 only

  4. d) All of the above

 

Answer c

Explanation: 

  • The Brahmo Samaj had the issue of widow remarriage high on its agenda and did much to popularise it. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect

  • It was mainly due to the efforts of Pandit Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar (1820-91), the principal of Sanskrit College, Calcutta, that the Hindu Widows’ Remarriage Act, 1856, was passed; it legalised marriage of widows and declared issues from such marriages as legitimate. Hence Statement 2 and 3 are correct

  • Vidyasagar cited Vedic texts to prove that the Hindu religion sanctioned widow remarriage.

 

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Q7. Consider the following statements

  1. Vishnu Shastri Pandit founded the Widow Remarriage Association

  2. Karsondas Mulji started the Satya Prakash in Gujrati

  3. DK Karve started the first women university in Bombay.

Which of the above statements are correct

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. a) 1 and 3 only

  2. b) 1 and 2 only

  3. c) 2 and 3 only

  4. d) All of the above

 

Answer d

Explanation: All the above are related to widow remarriage in India

  • Jagannath Shankar Seth and Bhau Daji were among the active promoters of girls’ schools in Maharashtra.

  • Vishnu Shastri Pandit founded the Widow Remarriage Association in the 1850s.

  • Karsondas Mulji started the Satya Prakash in Gujarati in 1852 to advocate widow remarriage.

  • Professor K. Karve in western India and by Veerasalingam Pantulu in Madras. Karve himself married a widow in 1893. He dedicated his life to the upliftment of Hindu widows and became the secretary of the Widow Remarriage Association. He opened a widows’ home in Poona to give the high caste widows an interest in life by providing them with facilities for vocational training.

  • The right of widows to remarriage was also advocated by B.M. Malabari, Narmad (Narmadashankar Labhshankar Dave), Justice Govind Mahadeo Ranade and K. Natarajan among others.

 

Q8.Consider the following statements regarding the Child Marriges  in India

  1. Age of Consent Act (1891) forbade the marriage of girls below the age of 12.

  2. Tilak was vocal proponent against Age of Consent Act (1891).

  3. The Sarda Act (1930) pushed up the marriage age to 21 and 18 for boys and girls respectively

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. a) 1 and 3 only

  2. b) 1 and 2 only

  3. c) 2 and 3 only

  4. d) All of the above

 

Answer b

Explanation: 

  • The Native Marriage Act (or Civil Marriage Act), 1872 signified legislative action in prohibiting child marriage. It had a limited impact as the Act was not applicable to Hindus, Muslims and other recognised faiths.

  • The relentless efforts of a Parsi reformer, M. Malabari, were rewarded by the enactment of the Age of Consent Act (1891) which forbade the marriage of girls below the age of 12. Tilak was against it. Hence Statement 1 is correct

  • The Sarda Act (1930) further pushed up the marriage age to 18 and 14 for boys and girls, respectively. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect

  • In free India, the Child Marriage Restraint (Amendment) Act, 1978 raised the age of marriage for girls from 15 to 18 years and for boys from 18 to 21.

 

Q9. Consider the following statements

  1. Bethune School was founded by Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar in Calcutta in 1849

  2. Charles Wood’s Despatch on Education (1854) laid great stress on the need for female education.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. a) 1 only

  2. b) 2 only

  3. c) Both 1 and 2

  4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

 Answer b

Explantion:

  • The Christian missionaries were the first to set up the Calcutta Female Juvenile Society in 1819. The Bethune School, founded by J.E.D. Bethune, president of the Council of Education in Calcutta in 1849 was the first fruit of the powerful movement for women’s education that arose in the 1840s and 1850s. Hence statement 1 is incorrect

  • Pandit Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar was associated with no less than 35 girls’ schools in Bengal and is considered one of the pioneers of women’s education.

  • Charles Wood’s Despatch on Education (1854) laid great stress on the need for female education. In 1914, the Women’s Medical Service did a lot of work in training nurses and mid-wives.

  • The Indian Women’s University set up by Professor D.K. Karve in 1916 was one of the outstanding institutions imparting education to women. In the same year Lady Hardinge Medical College was opened in Delhi.

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  1. Consider the following statements

  2. Chaturvarnashrama dictated that the caste of a person determined the status and relative purity of different sections of population.

  3. Caste syatem is based on the principle of equality by birth.

  4. British rule, created certain conditions that undermined caste consciousness to an extent.

  5. Arya Samaj advocated for untouchability by GOING BACK TO VEDAS

Which of the above statement/s is/are incorrect

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. a) 1 and 3 only

  2. b) 1, 3 and 4 only

  3. c) 2 and 4 only

  4. d) All of the above

Answer c

Explanation:

  • The concept of Hindu chaturvarnashrama dictated that the caste of a person determined the status and relative purity of different sections of population. It was caste that determined who could get education or ownership of landed property, the kind of profession one should pursue, whom one could dine with or marry, etc. Statement 1 is correct

  • The worst-hit by the discriminatory institution of caste were the ‘untouchables’ or the scheduled castes/dalits, as they came to be called later. The disabilities imposed on them were humiliating, inhuman and based on the principle of inequality by birth. Statement 2 is incorrect

Factors that Helped to Mitigate Caste-based Discrimination

  • British rule, perhaps without intention, created certain conditions that undermined caste consciousness to an extent. Statement 3 is correct

  • The social reform movements also strove to undermine caste-based exploitation.

  • The national movement took inspiration from the principles of liberty and equality against the forces which tended to divide the society.

  • With increasing opportunities of education and general awakening, there were stirrings among the lower castes themselves.

Arya Samaj while crusading against the disintegration of Hindu society into myriad sub-castes, aimed at reconstructing it on the original four-fold division and upholding the right of even the lowest castes to study the scriptures. Statement 4 is incorrect

 

Q11. Consider the following about Poona Sarvajanik Sabha.

  1. It was established by Tilak.

  2. It advocated the principle of Swadeshi and Swaraj.

  3. It acted as a mediating body between the government and people of India.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 and 2 only

  2. 1 and 3 only

 

  1. 2 and 3 only

  2. 3 only

Correct Answer : d

Answer Justification :

Explanation:It was established by MG Ranade in 1870.So, statement 1 is incorrect.

Statement 3 is incorrect as it did not advocate such radical reforms. Its main aim was to mediate between the government and people.

It was a sociopolitical organisation in British India which started with the aim of working as a mediating body between the government and people of India.

The organisation was a precursor to the Indian National Congress which started with its first session from Maharashtra itself. The Pune Sarvajanik Sabha provided many of the prominent leaders of national stature to the Indian freedom struggle including Bal Gangadhar Tilak. It was formed in 1870 by S. H. Chiplunkar, Ganesh Vasudeo Joshi, Mahadev Govind Ranade

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Q.12.Consider the following about Prarthana Samaj.

  1. It was established in 1867 in Bombay.

  2. Its primary objective was to promote Indian spirituality to the West.

  3. Its leaders condemned rituals and superstitions of orthodox Hinduism.

Select the incorrect answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 and 2 only

  2. 2 and 3 only

  3. 1 only

  4. All of the above

Answer b

Statement 3 is incorrect as the religious meetings of the Samaj drew upon Hindu, Buddhist and Christian texts.

Statement 2 is also incorrect, as securing social justice was the primary aim of the Samaj, not the promotion of spirituality to the West.

Prarthana Samaj was founded by Aatma Ram Pandurang in 1867 with an aim to make people believe in one God and worship only one God. The main reformers were the intellectuals who advocate reforms of the social system of the Hindus. It sought to remove caste restrictions, abolish child marriage, encourage the education of women, and end the ban on widow remarriage

 

  1. With reference to the Arya samaj, consider the following statements:

  2. It assumed Vedas to be infallible.

  3. It prevented the conversion of Hindus to other religion.

  4. It started movements like “Shuddhi”

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1 ,2 and 3 only

Answer d

 

The Arya Samaj Movement, revivalist in form though not in content, was the result of a reaction to Western influences.

His vision of India included a classless and casteless society, a united India (religiously, socially and nationally), and an India free from foreign rule, with Aryan religion being the common religion of all. He took inspiration from the Vedas and considered them to be ‘India’s Rock of Ages’, the infallible and the true original seed of Hinduism. He gave the slogan “Back to the Vedas”.

Shuddhi had a social reform agenda behind its belligerent rationale and was aimed at abolishing the practise of untouchability by converting outcasts from other religions to Hinduism and integrating them into the mainstream community by elevating their position, and instilling self-confidence and self-determination in them.The movement strove to reduce the conversions of Hindus to Islam and Christianity, which were underway at the time.

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Q14. Consider the following statements regarding Satnami movement

  1. Ghasidas established Satnami community in Chhattisgarh.

  2. Fighting for social justice for marginalized castes and communities.

  3. Stopping the practice of Sati and widow persecution in rural India

 

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1 ,2 and 3 only

Answer c

Explanation:

Ghasidas established Satnami community in Chhattisgarh, India based on “Satnam” (meaning “Truth”) and equality. Ghasi Das instigated a socio-religious order that discarded and helped in demolishing the hierarchical caste system from the society. This new order initiated by Ghasi Das through Satnamis principles treated all people as equal.

Satnami principles state that ‘there is only one God’, which is described as formless and infinite. Ghasi Das was of the view that the measures to eradicate social injustice and disparity would stay insufficient and unfinished without the proper transformation of the individuals

 

Q15.Consider the following statements regarding Hindu college Calcutta

  1. Rammohan Roy, established the Hindu College

  2. The Hindu College of Calcutta, played an important role in modernising the movements in Bengal.

Which of the above statements is/are orrect

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. a) 1 only

  2. b) 2 only

  3. c) Both 1 and 2

  4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

 Answer b

Explanation:

Rammohan Roy did much to disseminate the benefits of modern education to his countrymen. He supported David Hare’s efforts to found the Hindu College in 1817,

He himself did not establish it . Statement 1 is incorrect

while Roy’s English school taught mechanics and Voltaire’s philosophy.

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Q16. Consider the following statements regarding Young Bengal movement

  1. Young Bengal, ridiculed all decadent old social traditions and customs.

  2. The Young Bengal Movement came to an end after Derozio’s dismissal from the Hindu College and his sudden death in 1831.

  3. The Derozians, had a long-term impact on Bengali society.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1 ,2 and 3 only

Answer c

Explanation:

  • A young Anglo-Indian, Henry Vivian Derozio (1809-31), who taught at the Hindu College from 1826 to 1831, was the leader and inspirer of this progressive trend.

  • Drawing inspiration from the great French Revolution, Derozio inspired his pupils to think freely and rationally, question all authority, love liberty, equality and freedom, and oppose decadent customs and traditions.

  • Statement 1 is correct

  • The Derozians, however, failed to have a long-term impact. Derozio was removed from the Hindu College in 1831 because of his radicalism. Statement 2 is correct but Statement 3 is incorrect

 

Q17.Which of the following was/were the cause of fall of Derozians

  1. Prevailing social conditions at that time

  2. No support from any other social group or class.

  3. Lack of any real link with the masses

  4. Lack of leadership

 

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. a) 1 and 3 only

  2. b) 1, 3 and 4 only

  3. c) 2 and 4 only

  4. d) All of the above

Answer d

Explanation:

The Derozians, however, failed to have a long-term impact. Derozio was removed from the Hindu College in 1831 because of his radicalism. The main reason for their limited success was the

  • Prevailing social conditions at that time, which were not ripe for the adoption of radical ideas.

  • Further, there was no support from any other social group or class.

  • The Derozians lacked any real link with the masses;

  • For instance, they failed to take up the peasants’ cause.

  • Infact, their radicalism was bookish in character.

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  1. Which among the following statements are correct regarding Brahmo Samaj?

  2. Brahmo Samaj earlier known as Brahmo Sabha laid emphasis on universal brotherhood.

  3. It opposed polytheism and idol worship.

  4. Prayers, meditation and readings of the Upanishads were to be the forms of worship

  5. It incorporated the teachings of other religions and established itself as a new religion.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only

  2. 1,2 and 3 only

  3. 1, 3 and 4 only

  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: b

  • Statement 4 is in correct :Rammohan Roy did not want to establish a new religion. He only wanted to purify Hinduism of the evil practices which had crept into it.

  • Raja Rammohan Roy founded the Brahmo Sabha in August 1828; it was later renamed Brahmo Samaj. Through the Sabha he wanted to institutionalise his ideas and mission.

  • The Samaj was committed to “the worship and adoration of the Eternal, Unsearchable, Immutable Being who is the Author and Preserver of the Universe”. Prayers, meditation and readings of the Upanishads were to be the forms of worship and no graven image, statue or sculpture, carving, painting, picture, portrait, etc., were to be allowed in the Samaj buildings, thus underlining the Samaj’s opposition to idolatry and meaningless rituals.

Q19. Consider the following pairs:

Social Reformer                                              Literary Works

  1. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar : The annihilation of caste

  2. Dayanand Saraswati : Back to Vedas

  3. Jyotiba Phule : Gulamgiri

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correctly matched ?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1 ,2 and 3 only

Answer a

Explanation:

  • Books authored by Dr Ambedkar : Pakistan or the Partition of India;The annihilation of caste;The Buddha and his Dhamma

  • Raja Rammohan Roy wrote Gift to Monotheists (1809) and translated into Bengali the Vedas and the five Upanishads to prove his conviction that ancient Hindu texts support monotheism.

  • Dayanand Saraswati‘s views were published in his famous work Satyarth Prakash (The True Exposition). Back to Vedas was the slogan given not the literary work

  • Jyotiba Phule‘s works, Sarvajanik Satyadharma and Gulamgiri, were sources of inspiration for the common masses.

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Q20. Consider the following pairs:

Book                                                                 Author

  1. The Indian War of Independence : V D Savarkar

  2. Glimpses of World History : Jawaharlal Nehru

  3. The annihilation of caste : Raja Rammohan Roy

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer a

Explanation:

  • Books authored by Dr Ambedkar : Pakistan or the Partition of India;The annihilation of caste;The Buddha and his Dhamma

  • Books authored by Savarkar: The Indian War of Independence; Hindu Rashtra Darshan

  • Books of Nehru, such as The Discovery of India, Glimpses of World History, and his autobiography, Toward Freedom

  • Raja Rammohan Roy wrote Gift to Monotheists (1809) and translated into Bengali the Vedas and the five Upanishads to prove his conviction that ancient Hindu texts support monotheism.

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CHAPTER-10

Beginning of Modern Nationalism in India

Q1. Which of the following were the main reason for the rise of nationalism in India

  1. Worldwide upsurge of the concepts of nationalism

  2. Indian Renaissance

  3. Modernisation initiated by the British in India.

  4. Reaction to British imperialist policies in India.

Which of the above statements are correct

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. a) 1, 2 and 3 only

  2. b) 1,3 and 4 only

  3. c) 2 and 3 only

  4. d) 1,2 ,3 and 4 only

Answer d

Explnantion:

  • Indian nationalism grew partly as a result of colonial policies and partly as a reaction to colonial policies. In fact, it would be more correct to see Indian nationalism as a product of a mix of various factors:

(i) Worldwide upsurge of the concepts of nationalism and right of self-determination initiated by the French Revolution.

(ii) Indian Renaissance.

(iii) Offshoot of modernisation initiated by the British in India.

(iv) Strong reaction to British imperialist policies in India.

 

Q2.Consider the following statements:

  1. Colonial rule was the major cause of India’s economic backwardness

  2. The British sword imposed political unity in India.

  3. Indian provinces were under ‘indirect’ British rule, the princely states were under ‘direct’ British rule.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

 (c) 2  only

 (d) 1 and 2 only

Answer d

Explanation:

  • People came to realise that colonial rule was the major cause of India’s economic backwardness and that the interests of the Indians involved the interests of all sections and classes.

  • Hence statement 1 is correct

  • While large areas of India had been brought under a single rule in the past—under the Mauryas or later under the Mughals— the British created a larger state than that of the Mauryas or the great Mughals. While Indian provinces were under ‘direct’ British rule, the princely states were under ‘indirect’ British rule.

  • Hence statement 3 is incorrect

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Q3.Which of the following was not the contribution of British In India

  1. A professional civil service

  2. Political unity of India

  3. Cultural unity in India

  4. Panchayati Raj

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. a) 1, 2 and 3 only

  2. b) 3 and 4 only

  3. c) 2 and 3 only

  4. d) 1,2 ,3 and 4 only

 

Answer: b

Explanation:  

  • The British sword imposed political unity in India.

  • A professional civil service, a unified judiciary and codified civil and criminal laws throughout the length and breadth of the country imparted a new dimension of political unity to the hitherto cultural unity that had existed in India for centuries.

  • Hence statement 1 and 2 are correct

  • The necessities of administrative convenience, considerations of military defence and the urge for economic penetration and commercial exploitation (all in British interests) were the driving forces behind the planned development of modern means of transport and communication such as railways, roads, electricity and telegraph

  • Hence statement 3 and 4 are incorrect

 

Q4.Which of the following was the impact of English education on Indians

  1. Spread of spiritual thinking in Indians

  2. The spread of liberal and radical western thought

  3. Helped different linguistic regions to communicate with each other.

  4. Helped in providing national leadership

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. a) 1, 2 and 3 only

  2. b) 3 and 4 only

  3. c) 2,3 and 4 only

  4. d) 1,2 ,3 and 4 only

Answer c

Explained:

  • The introduction of a modern system of education afforded opportunities for assimilation of modern Western ideas.

  • This, in turn, gave a new direction to Indian political thinking, although the English system of education had been conceived by the rulers in the self-interest of efficient administration.

  • The liberal and radical thought of European writers like Milton, Shelley, John Stuart Mill, Rousseau, Paine, Spencer and Voltaire helped many Indians imbibe modern rational, secular, democratic and nationalist ideas.

  • The English language helped nationalist leaders from different linguistic regions to communicate with each other. Those among the educated who took up liberal professions (lawyers, doctors, etc.) often visited England for higher education. There they saw the working of modern political institutions in a free country and compared that system with the Indian situation where even basic rights were denied to the citizens.

  • This ever-expanding English educated class formed the middle class intelligentsia who constituted the nucleus for the newly arising political unrest. It was this section which provided leadership to the Indian political associations.

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Q5) The Welby Commission was setup by the British Government to

  1. a) Bring educational reforms in Indian Universities

  2. b) To examine the working of Diarchy of the Montague-Chelmsford reforms

  3. c) To investigate the progress of the governance scheme and suggest new steps for reform

  4. d) Enquire into the unnecessary expenditures by the British Indian government.

Solution: d)

Explanation:

In 1895, the Royal Commission on the Administration of Expenditure of India, commonly known as the Welby Commission, was set up to look into Indian expenditures. Dadabhai Naoroji (1825-1917), and William S. Caine (1842-1903) as representatives of Indian interests.This improved the economic condition of India by reducing excessive expenditure.

Welby commission was an effort of Early Nationalists. Among those who provided evidence to the Commission were G.K. Gokhale.

The Welby Commission’s report, published in 1900, showed a number of cases where excessive or unjust payments had been made by the Indian government. One of the most glaring was that of the Red Sea and India Telegraph Company. The company was formed in 1858 and invested 11 million pounds sterling. Although the company’s operations collapsed after a few days when the telegraph line broke down, it continued to receive the guaranteed 4 1/5 percent return on its capital for fifty years. As the Welby Commission report noted. “in 1861 an act was passed declaring that the guarantee was not conditional upon the telegraph being in working order.”

The Commission’s report called for the House of Commons to insure impartiality of financial arrangements. English costs were not to be relieved at the expense of Indian revenues. India, as a member of the British Empire, was to be prepared to provide support. The India Office must be consulted regarding charges affecting India and that India’s payments to England should be tied to a fixed exchange issions in Pre-independence India, 1836-1947: 1882-1895, edited by M. Anees Chishtibhai

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CHAPTER-11

Indian National Congress: Foundation and the Moderate Phase

Q1. Which of the following were the reason  Drain of wealth from India :

  1. Plunder and taxation

  2. Employment of Englishmen in India

  3. Investment of British capital in India

  4. Free and unequal trade

  5. Rupee Sterling Imbalance

Select the correct answer using the codes below

  1. 1, 2 and 4 only

  2. 3 ,4 and 5 only

  3. 2 and 3 only

  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4 and 5

Answer :d

Statement 1 is correct: Taxation that was received was not returned to the Indians in form of welfare transfers, government spending. Instead it was used to further the agenda of the British empire.

Statement 2 is correct: Their salaries were paid from Indian wealth and were even sent abroad.

Statement 3  is correct: Many entrepreneurs were guaranteed returns on their investments for e.g. in railways, and took away the investment as well as the profits back to England

 

Q2.Consider the following statements

  1. Dufferin condemned the Congress, calling the nationalists “seditious brahmins”, “disloyal babus”.

  2. Sir Syed Ahmed Khan organised the United Indian Patriotic Association to counter Congress propaganda.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: d

Explanation:

  • The government resorted to open condemnation of the Congress, calling the nationalists “seditious brahmins”, “disloyal babus”, Dufferin called the Congress “a factory of sedition”.

  • Statement 1 is correct

  • Later, the government adopted a ‘divide and rule’ policy towards the Congress.

  • The officials encouraged reactionary elements like Sir Syed Ahmed Khan and Raja Shiv Prasad Singh of Benaras to organise the United Indian Patriotic Association to counter Congress propaganda.

  • Statement 2 is correct

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Q3. With reference to the history of modern India, the Fraser commission was setup to:

(a) reforms in the Civil administration.

(b) examine the relations between the princely states and the paramount power.

(c) reforms in Education.

(d) police department reforms

Answer d

Explanation:

  • In 1902-03, a Commission was established for the Police reforms under Sir Andrew Frazer (Fraser commission) by Lord curzon.

  • Aitchison Commission was set up by Dufferin in 1886 to suggest reforms in the Civil Services.

  • Butler Commission was set up to examine the relations between the princely states and the paramount

Q4. Consider the following statements

  1. Two sessions of the Indian National Conference had been held in 1883 and 1885

  2. Surendranath Banerjea and Ananda Mohan Bose were the main architects of the Indian National Conference.

  3. The first session of the Indian National Congress was organised at Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit College in Bombay in December 1885.

Which of the above statements are correct

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

 (c) 2  only

 (d) 1 and 2 only

Answer a

Explanation:

  • English civil servant, A.O. Hume, mobilised leading intellectuals of the time and, with their cooperation, organised the first session of the Indian National Congress at Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit College in Bombay in December 1885.

  • Statement 3 is correct

  • As a prelude to this, two sessions of the Indian National Conference had been held in 1883 and 1885, which had representatives drawn from all major towns of India.

  • Surendranath Banerjea and Ananda Mohan Bose were the main architects of the Indian National Conference.

  • Statement 1 and 2 are correct

Q5. Which of the following was not aim of Indian National Congress during its initial phase

  1. Promote and nurture Indian nationhood

  2. Develop and propagate an anti-colonial nationalist ideology

  3. Politicise and politically educate people

  4. To promote social reforms in the society

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Answer d

Explanation:

The main aims of the Indian National Congress in the initial stage were to—

(i) found a democratic, nationalist movement;

(ii) politicise and politically educate people;

(iii) establish the headquarters for a movement;

(iv) promote friendly relations among nationalist political workers from different parts of the country;

(v) develop and propagate an anti-colonial nationalist ideology;

(vi) formulate and present popular demands before the government with a view to unifying the people over a common economic and political programme;

(vii) develop and consolidate a feeling of national unity among people irrespective of religion, caste or province.

(viii) carefully promote and nurture Indian nationhood

 

Q6. Consider the following statements with respect to moderate phase of Indian National Congress

Assertion (A): The Moderates believed that the British wanted to be just to the Indians

Reason (R): The Moderates believed that the British were not aware of the real Indian conditions

In the context of the above, which of these is correct?

  1. a) A is correct, and R is an appropriate explanation of A.

  2. b) A is correct, but R is not an appropriate explanation of A.

  3. c) A is incorrect, but R is correct.

  4. d) Both A and R are incorrect.

 

Answer b

Explanation:

The moderate political activity involved constitutional agitation within the confines of law and showed a slow but orderly vpolitical progress. The Moderates believed that the British basically wanted to be just to the Indians but were not aware of the real conditions. Therefore, if public opinion could be created in the country and public demands be presented to the government through resolutions, petitions, meetings, etc., the authorities would concede these demands gradually.

Both statements are individually correct but statement 2 is not correct explanation for 1.

Q7.Consider the following statements

  1. Create a strong public opinion to arouse consciousness and national spirit and then educate and unite people on common political questions

  2. Persuade the British Government and British public opinion to introduce reforms in India on the lines laid out in Russia.

Which of the above was/were the contribution of moderates of INC

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer a

Explanation:

The Moderates believed that the British basically wanted to be just to the Indians but were not aware of the real conditions. Therefore, if public opinion could be created in the country and public demands be presented to the government through resolutions, petitions, meetings, etc., the authorities would concede these demands gradually. To achieve these ends, they worked on a two-pronged methodology—one, create a strong public opinion to arouse consciousness and national spirit and then educate and unite people on common political questions; and two, persuade the British Government and British public opinion to introduce reforms in India on the lines laid out by the nationalists. They used the method of ‘prayer and petition’ and if that failed, they resorted to constitutional agitation.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

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Q8. . Consider the following statements with respect to moderate phase of Indian National Congress

Assertion (A): The Moderates tried to transform the colonial rule to be as close to a national rule as possible.

Reason (R): The Moderates believed that political connections with Britain were in India’s interest

In the context of the above, which of these is correct?

  1. a) A is correct, and R is an appropriate explanation of A.

  2. b) A is correct, but R is not an appropriate explanation of A.

  3. c) A is incorrect, but R is correct.

  4. d) Both A and R are incorrect.

 

Answer a

Explanation: The Moderate leaders believed that political connections with Britain were in India’s interest at that stage of history and that the time was not ripe for a direct challenge to the British rule. Therefore, it was considered to be appropriate to try and transform the colonial rule to be as close to a national rule as possible political connections with Britain were in India’s interest

 

 

Q9.Which of the following statements

  1. The Imperial Legislative Council was constituted by the Indian Councils Act 1892

  2. Rashbehari Bose was among those who nominated to the assembly.

 

Which of the above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. None

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Answer d

Explanation:

  • Legislative councils in India had no real official power till 1920.

  • Yet, work done in them by the nationalists helped the growth of the national movement. The Imperial Legislative Council constituted by the Indian Councils Act (1861) was an impotent body designed to disguise official measures as having been passed by a representative body. Indian members were few in number—in the thirty years from 1862 to 1892 only forty-five Indians were nominated to it, most of them being wealthy, landed and with loyalist interests.

  • Hence statement 1 is incorrect

  • Only a handful of political figures and independent intellectuals such as Syed Ahmed Khan, Kristodas Pal, V.N. Mandlik, K.L. Nulkar and Rashbehari Ghosh were among those nominated.

  • Hence statement 2 is also incorrect

 

Q10. Which of the following about the councils act of 1892 is incorrect

  1. The principle of representation was introduced.

  2. Budget could be only be voted not discussed.

  3. Supplementaries could not be asked, nor could answers to any question be discussed.

Select  the correct option from code given below

Which of the above statements are correct

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

 (c) 2  only

 (d) 1 and 2 only

Answer c

Explanation:  Main Provisions

  • Number of additional members in Imperial Legislative Councils and the Provincial Legislative Councils was raised. In Imperial Legislative Council, now the governor-general could have ten to sixteen non-officials (instead of six to ten previously).

  • The non-official members of the Indian legislative council were to be nominated by the Bengal Chamber of Commerce and provincial legislative councils. The members could be recommended by universities, municipalities, zamindars and chambers of commerce. So the principle of representation was introduced.

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  • Budget could be discussed.

  • Questions could be asked.

Limitations

  • The officials retained their majority in the council, thus making ineffective the non-official voice.

  • The ‘reformed’ Imperial Legislative Council met, during its tenure till 1909, on an average for only thirteen days in a year, and the number of unofficial Indian members present was only five out of twenty-four.

  • The budget could not be voted upon, nor could any amendments be made to it. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

  • Supplementaries could not be asked, nor could answers to any question be discussed.

Q11. Which of the following about the councils act of 1892 is correct

  1. Reforms of councils act of 1892 were welcomed at Congress sessions

  2. Nationalists demanded self-government on the lines of the self-governing colonies of Canada and Australia.

  3. 1 only

  4. 2 only

  5. Both 1 and 2

  6. None

Answer b

 Explanation:  

  • The early nationalists worked with the long-term objective of a democratic self-government. Their demands for constitutional reforms were meant to have been conceded in 1892 in the form of the Indian Councils Act.

  • These reforms were severely criticised at Congress sessions, where the nationalists made no secret of their dissatisfaction with them. Now, they demanded (i) a majority of elected Indians, and (ii) control over the budget, i.e., the power to vote upon and amend the budget. They gave the slogan—“No taxation without representation”. Hence statement 1 is incorrect

  • Gradually, the scope of constitutional demands was widened. Dadabhai Naoroji (1904), Gopal Krishna Gokhale (1905) and Lokmanya Tilak (1906) demanded self-government on the lines of the self-governing colonies of Canada and Australia. Also, leaders like Pherozshah Mehta and Gokhale put government policies and proposals to severe criticism.

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Q12.Which of the following were the demands put forward by the moderates of INC

  1. Indianisation of government service

  2. Support of an aggressive foreign policy which resulted in annexation of Burma

  3. Demand for better treatment for Indian labour abroad in other British colonies.

 

Which of the above statements are correct

Select  the correct option from code given below

 (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

 (c) 2  only

 (d) 1 and 2 only

 

Answer b

Explanation:

(i) Indianisation of government service: on the economic grounds that British civil servants got very high emoluments while inclusion of Indians would be more economica

 (ii) Call for separation of judicial from executive functions.

(iii) Criticism of an oppressive and tyrannical bureaucracy and an expensive and time-consuming judicial system.

(iv) Criticism of an aggressive foreign policy which resulted in annexation of Burma, attack on Afghanistan and suppression of tribals in the North-West—all costing heavily for the Indian treasury.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

(v) Call for increase in expenditure on welfare (i.e., health, sanitation), education—especially elementary and technical—irrigation works and improvement of agriculture, agricultural banks for cultivators, etc.

(vi) Demand for better treatment for Indian labour abroad in other British colonies, where they faced oppression and racial discrimination.

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Q13.Which of the following are matched correctly

Foundational theories of INC                                                Prominent believers:

Safety Valve Theory —                                                             G.K. Gokhale

Conspiracy Theory—                                                                 R.P. Dutt

Lightning conductor Theory—                                                Lala Lajpat Rai

 

Select  the correct option from code given below

 (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

 (c) 2  only

 (d) 1 and 2 only

Answer c

Explanation:

Foundational theories of INC and prominent believers:

Safety Valve Theory —Lala Lajpat Rai

Conspiracy Theory—R.P. Dutt

Lightning conductor Theory—G.K. Gokhale

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CHAPTER-12

Era of Militant Nationalism (1905-1909)

  1. The Progressive Writers’ Movement in the colonial era was a

  2. a) Literary movement started in the immediate aftermath of the Non Cooperation movement

  3. b) Splinter group of Ghadar party in America

  4. c) Emergence of Communist group after Bolshevic Revolution in Russia

  5. d) None of the above

 

Answer d

Explanation: The Anjuman Tarraqi Pasand Mussanafin-e-Hind or Progressive Writers’ Movement of India was a progressive literary movement in pre-partition British India. Some branches of this writers’ group existed around the world besides in India and Pakistan.

These groups were anti-imperialistic and left-oriented, and sought to inspire people through their writings advocating equality among all humans and attacking social injustice and backwardness in the society.

The Indian Progressive Writers’ Association was set up in London in 1935.

The Progressive Writers’ Association was set up in Kolkata in July 1936.

 

Q2. Consider the following statements about Lala Lajpat Rai.
1. He was a co-founder of the Anglo-Vedic School along with Dayanand Saraswati.
2. He was the founder of Punjab National Bank.
3. He was never  been the President of the Indian National Congress (INC).

Which of the above statements regarding LL Rai is/are incorrect

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 3 only

  2. 1 and 3 only

  3. 1 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer b

Statement 3 is incorrect: In 1888 and 1889 he was a delegate to the annual sessions of Indian National Congress (INC) and was elected as its President in the Calcutta Special Session of 1920.

He had helped establish the nationalistic Dayanand AngloVedic School and became a follower of Dayanand Saraswati (founder of the Arya Samaj). He was not its co-founder

He was also the founder of Punjab National Bank

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Q3. Consider the following statements about Madam Bhikaji Cama.

  1. She founded the Paris Indian Society.

  2. She has served as the Secretary General of the Indian Home Rule Society

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. None

 

Statement 1 is correct: She co-founded the Paris Indian Society together with Singh Rewabhai Rana and Munchershah Burjorji Godre.

She served as the private secretary of Dadabhai Naoroji, the president of the British Committee of the Indian National Congress. Together with Naoroji and Singh Rewabhai Rana, Cama supported the founding of Varma’s Indian Home Rule Society in 1905.: In her appeal for human rights, equality and for autonomy from Great Britain, she unfurled what she called the “Flag of Indian Independence

 

Q4.Arrange the following events chronologically

  1. Deportation of Natu brothers

  2. Assasination of WC Rand

  3. Officials secrets Act

  4. Indian universities Act

 

Select the correct answer from options given below

  1. 1-2-3-4

  2. 2-1-3-4

  3. 3-1-2-4

  4. 2-3-1-4

 

Answer : b

Explanation:

1897 — The Natu brothers were deported without trial and Tilak and others, imprisoned on charges of sedition.

1898 — Repressive laws under IPC Section 124 A were further amplified with new provisions under IPC Section 156 A

1899 — Number of Indian members in Calcutta Corporation were reduced.

1904 — Official Secrets Act curbed freedom of press.

1904 — Indian Universities Act ensured greater government control over universities, which it described as factories producing political revolutionaries.

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Q5. Consider the following statements

  1. British Government was suppressing the spread of education, especially mass and technical education after the 1857 war.

  2. Moderates believed that the masses had to be involved in the battle against colonial government

  3. Moderates were confident that masses were capable of making the immense sacrifices needed to win freedom.

Which of the above statements  is/are incorrect

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 3 only

  2. 2 and 3 only

  3. 1 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer b

Explanation:  

British rule was no longer progressive socially and culturally. It was suppressing the spread of education, especially mass and technical education. Hence statement 1 is correct

There was a growing faith in self-effort. Tilak, Aurobindo and Bipin Chandra Pal repeatedly urged the nationalists to rely on the character and capacities of the Indian people. A feeling started gaining currency that the masses had to be involved in the battle against colonial government as they were capable of making the immense sacrifices needed to win freedom.

Hence statement 2,3 are incorrect.

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Q6. Arrange the following events chronologically

  1. Rampa Rebellion

  2. Ethopian win over Italy

  3. Boer War

  4. Japan Win over Russia

 

Select the correct answer from options given below

  1. 1-2-3-4

  2. 3-2-4-1

  3. 3-1-2-4

  4. 2-3-4-1

 

Answer d

Explanation:  The defeat of the Italian army by Ethiopians (1896), the Boer wars (1899- 1902) where the British faced reverses and Japan’s victory over Russia (1905) demolished myths of European invincibility.

The Rampa Rebellion of 1922 was a tribal uprising, led by Alluri Sitarama Raju in Godavari Agency of Madras Presidency, British India. It began in August 1922 and lasted until the capture and killing of Raju in May 1924.

Q7. Which of the following is/are not the valid criticisms of the Revolutionary Movements during India’s Struggle for Freedom?

  1. They unrealistically believed that by killing few individuals they could free the country .

  2. They worked to unite the masses and worked in large groups.

  3. They could not realize that all are not capable of violence.

Select the correct answers using the codes given below

  1. a) 2 only

  2. b) 1 and 2 only

  3. c) 1 and 3 only

  4. d) 3 only

Answer: a

Explanation:

  • The Revolutionary movement for Indian independence is a part of the Indian independence movement comprising the actions of the underground revolutionary factions.

  • Groups believing in armed revolution against the ruling British fell into this category.Revolutionary groups were mainly concentrated in Bengal, Maharashtra, Bihar, the United Provinces and Punjab.

  • More groups were scattered across India and thus had a restricted appeal.

  • Statements 1 and 3 are valid criticisms of the Revolutionary movement. They believed violence as the means to achieve freedom. Statement 2 is incorrect because they were unable to unite a large mass of people.

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Q8.Which of the following were the reasons for the rise of growth of militant nationalism

  1. Emergence of a trained leadership

  2. Dissatisfaction with the achievements as well as the methods of the Moderates.

  3. Impact of growth of education—increase in awareness and unemployment.

Select the correct answers using the codes given below

  1. a) 2 only

  2. b) 1 and 2 only

  3. c) 1 and 3 only

  4. d) 1 , 2 and 3 only

Answer d

Explanation:

  1. Realisation that the true nature of British rule was exploitative, and that the British India government, instead of conceding more, was taking away even what existed.

  2. Growth of self-confidence and self-respect.

  3. Impact of growth of education—increase in awareness and unemployment.

  4. International influences and events which demolished the myth of white/European supremacy. These included

— emergence of Japan—an Asian country—as an industrial power

— Abyssinia’s (Ethiopia) victory over Italy.

— Boer Wars (1899-1902) in which the British faced reverses.

— Japan’s victory over Russia (1905).

  1. Reaction to increasing westernisation.

  2. Dissatisfaction with the achievements as well as the methods of the Moderates.

  3. Reactionary policies of Curzon such as the Calcutta Corporation Act (1899), the Official Secrets Act (1904), the Indian Universities Act (1904) and partition of Bengal (1905).

  4. Existence of a militant school of thought.

  5. Emergence of a trained leadership.

Q9.Which of the following were tenets of the  Extremist Ideology

1 Hatred for foreign rule

2  Disbelief in the capacity of the masses

3  Swarajya as goal

4  Advocacy of direct political action and self-sacrifice.

Select the correct codes from the below:

(a) 1,3 and 4 only

 (b) 2 and 3 only

(c)  2 and 4 only

(d)1,2  and 3 only

 

Answer a

Explanation:  The Extremist Ideology

(i) Hatred for foreign rule

(ii) Belief in the capacity of the masses. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

(iii) Swarajya as goal

(iv) Advocacy of direct political action and self-sacrifice.

 

Q10.Arrange the following events chronologically

1 Seditious Meetings Act

2 Criminal Law (Amendment) Act

3 Indian Newspapers (Incitement to Offences) Act

4 Indian Press Act

Select the correct answer from options given below

  1. 1-2-3-4

  2. 3-2-4-1

  3. 3-1-2-4

  4. 2-3-4-1

 

Answer a

Explanation:

Government Acts for Repression of Swadeshi Movement

Seditious Meetings Act (1907)

Criminal Law (Amendment) Act (1908)

Indian Newspapers (Incitement to Offences) Act (1908)

Explosive Substances Act (1908)

Indian Press Act (1910)

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Q11. “If it could be said that this chapter of reforms led directly or indirectly to the establishment of a parliamentary system in India, I, for one, would have nothing at all to do with it.”

Who said the above statement.

Select the correct answers from the code given below

  1. Lord Linlithgow

  2. Lord Curzon

  3. Lord Morley

  4. Lord Chelmsford

 

Answer c

Explanation:

The reforms of 1909 afforded no answer to the Indian political problem. Lord Morley made it clear that colonial self-government (as demanded by the Congress) was not suitable for India, and he was against the introduction of parliamentary or responsible government in India. He said, “If it could be said that this chapter of reforms led directly or indirectly to the establishment of a parliamentary system in India, I, for one, would have nothing at all to do with it.”

 

Q12.The constitutional reforms of 1909 were aimed at

  1. Dividing the nationalist ranks

  2. Checking the growth of unity among Indians

  3. Annulment of partition of Bengal

Select the correct answers using the codes given below

  1. a) 2 only

  2. b) 1 and 2 only

  3. c) 1 and 3 only

  4. d) 1 , 2 and 3 only

 

Answer b

Explanation:

  • The ‘constitutional’ reforms were, in fact, aimed at dividing the nationalist ranks by confusing the Moderates and at checking the growth of unity among Indians through the obnoxious instrument of separate electorates.

  • The government aimed at rallying the Moderates and the Muslims against the rising tide of nationalism.

  • The officials and the Muslim leaders often talked of the entire community when they talked of the separate electorates, but in reality it meant the appeasement of just a small section of the Muslim elite. Hence statement 1 and  2 are correct

  • Annulment of Bengal was done in 1911

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Q13. Which of the following statements about the reason behind decline of extremists during early 20th century is/are correct?

  1. Tilak was judged guilty and sentenced to six years’

  2. Retirement of Lala Lajpat Rai from active politics.

  3. Aurobindo left for abroad.

  4. The Extremists were not able to organise an effective alternative party

Select the correct codes from the below:

(a) 1,3 and 4 only

 (b) 2 and 3 only

(c)  1 and 4 only

(d) 1,2  and 3 only

Answer c

Explanation:

  • Tilak was judged guilty and sentenced to six years’ transportation and a fine of Rs 1,000.

  • He was sent to Mandalay (Burma) jail for six years.

  • Aurobindo and B.C. Pal retired from active politics.

  • Lajpat Rai left for abroad.

  • The Extremists were not able to organise an effective alternative party to sustain the movement.

  • The Moderates were left with no popular base or support, especially as the youth rallied behind the Extremists.

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CHAPTER-13

First Phase of Revolutionary Activities (1907-1917)

Q1. Consider the following statements.

Assertion (A): The revolutionaries created a violent mass revolution throughout the country and tried to subvert the loyalties of the Army.

Reason (R): They opted to follow in the footsteps of Russian nihilists or the Irish nationalists.

In the context of the above, which of these is correct?

  1. a) A is correct, and R is an appropriate explanation of A.

  2. b) A is correct, but R is not an appropriate explanation of A.

  3. c) A is incorrect, but R is correct.

  4. d) Both A and R are incorrect.

 

Answer c

Explanation:

  • The revolutionaries considered, but did not find it practical at that stage to implement, the options of creating a violent mass revolution throughout the country or of trying to subvert the loyalties of the Army. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

  • Instead, they opted to follow in the footsteps of Russian nihilists or the Irish nationalists.

  • Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • This methodology involved

  • individual heroic actions,

  • such as organising assassinations of unpopular officials and of traitors and informers among the revolutionaries themselves;

  • conducting swadeshi dacoities to raise funds for revolutionary activities;

  • and (during the First World War) organizing military conspiracies with expectation of help from the enemies of Britain.

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Q2.Which of  the following were the not the  factors in emergence of Revolutionary activism in early twentieth century

  1. Swadesi movement and Non Cooperation Movements

  2. Lack Of effective leadership

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. a) 1 only

  2. b) 2 only

  3. c) Both 1 and 2

  4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer d

Explanation:

The activities of revolutionary heroism started as a byproduct of the growth of militant nationalism. The first phase acquired a more activist form as a fallout of the Swadeshi and Boycott Movement and continued till 1917. The second phase started as a fallout of the Non-Cooperation Movement.

Hence statement 1 is a focator behind the revolutionary activism

After the decline of the open movement, the younger nationalists who had participated in the movement found it impossible to leave off and disappear into the background. They looked for avenues to give expression to their patriotic energies, but were disillusioned by the failure of the leadership, even the Extremists, to find new forms of struggle to bring into practice the new militant trends.

Hence statement 2 is a factor behind the revolutionary activism

 

Q3.Which of the following statement was not the method adopted by the revolutionaries in early twentieth century

  1. Individual heroic actions

  2. Assassinations of unpopular officials and of traitors

  3. Swadeshi dacoities

  4. Peaceful marches and gathering

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. a) 1, 2 and 3 only

  2. b) 1,3 and 4 only

  3. c) 2 and 3 only

  4. d) 1,2 and 4 only

 

Answer a

Explanation:

  • They opted to follow in the footsteps of Russian nihilists or the Irish nationalists.

  • This methodology involved individual heroic actions, such as organising assassinations of unpopular officials and of traitors and informers among the revolutionaries themselves; conducting swadeshi dacoities to raise funds for revolutionary activities; and (during the First World War) organizing military conspiracies with expectation of help from the enemies of Britain.

  • The idea was to strike terror in the hearts of the rulers, arouse people and remove the fear of authority from their minds. The revolutionaries intended to inspire the people by appealing to their patriotism, especially the idealistic youth who would finally drive the British out.

  • Hence only statement 4 is incorrect

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Q4. Consider the following statements regarding the secret societies in Bengal

  1. Calcutta’s student community was honeycombed with secret societies

  2. The Anushilan Samiti was founded by Promotha Mitter and Jatindranath Banerjee.among others

  3. Their activities were advanced and included organizing Militia members

Which of the above statements are correct

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

 (c) 2  only

 (d) 1 and 2 only

Answer d

Explanation:

  • In 1870s, Calcutta’s student community was honeycombed  with secret societies, Hence statement 1 is correct but these were not very active.

  • The first revolutionary groups were organised in 1902 in Midnapore (under Jnanendranath Basu) and in Calcutta (the Anushilan Samiti founded by Promotha Mitter, and including Jatindranath Banerjee, Barindra Kumar Ghosh and others.)

  • But their activities were limited to giving physical and moral training to the members and remained insignificant till 1907-08. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

 

Q5.Consider the following statements regarding Barisal conspiracy case

1.Aimed at inciting revolt against Raj

2.All the accused were hanged

3.Amrita bazaar Patrika was summoned due to editorials on this case

 

Which of the above statements are correct

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

 (c) 1 and 3  only

 (d) 1 and 2 only

Answer c

Explanation:

 

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Q6. Which of the following statements with respect to Khudi ram Bose is correct

  1. Bose is known to be the youngest martyr to be hanged

  2. Bose threw a bomb at a carriage supposed to be carrying judge, Kingsford

  3. Bose is accused in Alipore conspiracy case

 

Which of the above statements are correct

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

 (c) 1 and 3  only

 (d) 1 and 2 only

Answer d

Explanation:

In 1908, Prafulla Chaki and Khudiram Bose threw a bomb at a carriage supposed to be carrying a particularly sadistic white judge, Kingsford, in Muzaffarpur Hence Statement 2 is corrct and 3 is incorrect. Kingsford was not in the carriage. Unfortunately, two British ladies, instead, got killed. Prafulla Chaki shot himself dead while Khudiram Bose was tried and hanged.

 

Q7. Which among the following is not matched correctly

  1. Alipore conspiracy case Prafull Chakki

  2. Delhi conspiracy case         Aurobindo Ghosh

  3. Muzaffarpur conspiracy case Rash Behari Bose

  4. Kanpur Conspiracy case                   Muzaffar Ahmed

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. a) 1, 2 and 3 only

  2. b) 1,3 and 4 only

  3. c) 2 and 3 only

  4. d) 1,2 and 4 only

Answer a

Explanation:  

  • In 1908, Prafulla Chaki and Khudiram Bose threw a bomb at a carriage supposed to be carrying a particularly sadistic white judge, Kingsford, in Muzaffarpur. Kingsford was not in the carriage. Unfortunately, two British ladies, instead, got killed. Prafulla Chaki shot himself dead while Khudiram Bose was tried and hanged. Hence 1 is not matched correctly

  • The whole Anushilan group was arrested including the Ghosh brothers, Aurobindo and Barindra, who were tried in the Alipore conspiracy case, variously called Manicktolla bomb conspiracy or Muraripukur conspiracy. Hence 2 is not matched correctly

  • Rashbehari Bose and Sachin Sanyal staged a spectacular bomb attack on Viceroy Hardinge while he was making his official entry into the new capital of Delhi in a procession through Chandni Chowk in December 1912. (Hardinge was injured, but not killed.) Investigations following the assassination attempt led to the Delhi Conspiracy trial. Hence 3 is not matched correctly

  • In 1924, many communists—S.A. Dange, Muzaffar Ahmed, Shaukat Usmani, Nalini Gupta—were jailed in the Kanpur Bolshevik Conspiracy Case.

  • Hence only 4 matched correctly

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Q8.Consider the following wrt Zimmerman plan

  1. It was to trigger pan Indian mutiny to throw away Raj

  2. Ghadarites were actively involved in this plan

  3. The conspiracy resulted in Hindu German Conspiracy trial in England

Which of the above statements are correct

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

 (c) 1 and 3  only

 (d) 1 and 2 only

 

Answer d

Explanation:

 

 

Q9.Consider the following with regards to revolutionary activism in India

  1. Revolutionary activity emerged as the legacy of swadeshi Bengal movement

  2. It had an impact on educated youth for a generation or more.

  3. It was secular and Hindu, Muslim unity was clearly seen.

  4. It was coupled with the wide inter caste social base in Bengal

Which of the above statements are correct

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. a) 1 and 2 only

  2. b) 1, 3 and 4 only

  3. c) 2 and 3 only

  4. d) 1, 2 and 4 only

Answer a

Explanation:   

 Revolutionary activity emerged as the most substantial legacy of swadeshi Bengal which had an impact on educated youth for a generation or more. But, an overemphasis on Hindu religion kept the Muslims aloof. Moreover, it encouraged quixotic heroism. No involvement of the masses was envisaged, which, coupled with the narrow upper caste social base of the movement in Bengal, severely limited the scope of the revolutionary activity. In the end, it failed to withstand the weight of State repression

Hence statement 3 and 4 are incorrect

Q10. Consider the following with respect to Ramosi revolt

  1. It aimed to rid the country of the British by instigating an armed revolt

  2. It disrupted communication lines.

  3. It hoped to raise funds for its activities through donations from foreign lands.

 

Which of the above statements are correct

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

 (c) 1 and 3  only

 (d) 1 and 2 only

 

Answer d

Explanation:

  • The first of the revolutionary activities in Maharashtra was the organisation of the Ramosi Peasant Force by Vasudev Balwant Phadke in 1879, which aimed to rid the country of the British by instigating an armed revolt by disrupting communication

  • Hence statement 1 nad 2 are correct

  • It hoped to raise funds for its activities through dacoities. It was suppressed prematurely.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect

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Q11. Mitra mela was organized by

  1. VD Savarkar

  2. Chapekar Brothers

  3. Anant Lakshman Kanhere

  4. BG Tilak

 

Answer a

Explanation:

  • Savarkar and his brother organised Mitra Mela, a secret society, in 1899 which merged with Abhinav Bharat (after Mazzinni’s ‘Young Italy’) in 1904.

  • Soon Nasik, Poona and Bombay emerged as centres of bomb manufacture.

  • In 1909, A.M.T. Jackson, the Collector of Nasik, who was also a well-known indologist, was killed by Anant Lakshman Kanhere, a member of Abhinav Bharat.

Q12.Which of the following were the causes of rise in extremism in Punjab

  1. Frequent famines

  2. Rise in land revenue

  3. Communal Voilence

  4. By the events in Bengal.

Which of the above statements are correct

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. a) 1 and 2 only

  2. b) 1, 3 and 4 only

  3. c) 2 and 3 only

  4. d) 1, 2 and 4 only

Answer d

Explanation: The Punjab extremism was fuelled by issues such as

  • frequent famines coupled with

  • rise in land revenue and

  • irrigation tax,

  • practice of ‘begar’ by zamindars and

  • by the events in Bengal.

Hence statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct. Communal tensions were not the cause of rise in extremism in Punjab.

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Q13. Which of the following statements is/are correct  regarding Ajit Singh

  1. Ajit Singh brought out Punjabee (with its motto of self-help at any cost)

  2. He organised the extremist Anjuman-i-Mohisban-i-Watan in Lahore

  3. He brought out the journal, Bharat Mata.

Which of the above statements are correct

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

 (c) 1 and 3  only

 (d) 1 and 2 only

Answer b

Explanation:  Among those active here were Lala Lajpat Rai who brought out Punjabee (with its motto of self-help at any cost) Hence statement 1 is incorrect, and Ajit Singh (Bhagat Singh’s uncle) who organised the extremist Anjuman-i-Mohisban-i-Watan in Lahore with its journal, Bharat Mata. Before Ajit Singh’s group turned to extremism, it was active in urging non-payment of revenue and water rates among Chenab colonists and Bari Doab peasants.

 

Q14.Which of the following are not matched correctly

  1. Shyamji Krishnavarma The Indian Sociologist

  2. Madanlal Dhingra Curzon-Wyllie

  3. V D Savarkar                                                       Bande Mataram

  4. Madam Cama Nasik Conspiracy case

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. a) 1 and 2 only

  2. b) 1, 3 and 4 only

  3. c) 3 and 4 only

  4. d) 1, 2 and 4 only

Answer c

Explanation:

  • Shyamji Krishnavarma had started in London in 1905 an Indian Home Rule Society—‘India House’—as a centre for Indian students, a scholarship scheme to bring radical youth from India, and a journal The Indian Sociologist. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • Revolutionaries such as Savarkar and Hardayal became the members of India House. Madanlal Dhingra from this circle assassinated the India office bureaucrat Curzon-Wyllie in 1909. Hence statement 2 is correct

  • Soon, London became too dangerous for the revolutionaries, particularly after Savarkar had been extradited in 1910 and transported for life in the Nasik conspiracy case. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

  • New centres emerged on the continent—Paris and Geneva—from where Madam Bhikaji Cama, a Parsi revolutionary who had developed contacts with French socialists and who brought out Bande Mataram, and Ajit Singh operated. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.

Q15. Match the following correctly

  1. India House                                                    Vancouver

  2. Swadesh Sevak Home Seattle

  3. United India House San Francisco

  4. Ghadar                                                                     London

Choose the correct option from the codes given below

        1     2     3     4

a      d     b     a     c

b     d      a     b     c

c      c     b     a     d

d     c     a      b     d

 

Answer b

Explanation:

  • The Ghadr Party was a revolutionary group organised around a weekly newspaper The Ghadr with its headquarters at San Francisco and branches along the US coast and in the Far East.

  • These revolutionaries included mainly ex-soldiers and peasants who had migrated from the Punjab to the USA and Canada in search of better employment opportunities.

  • To carry out revolutionary activities, the earlier activists had set up a ‘Swadesh Sevak Home’ at Vancouver and ‘United India House’ at Seattle. Finally in 1913, the Ghadr was established.

  • Shyamji Krishnavarma had started in London in 1905 an Indian Home Rule Society—‘India House’—as a centre for Indian students, a scholarship scheme to bring radicalyouth from India, and a journal The Indian Sociologist.

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Q16. Arrange the following Chronologically

  1. Passage of defence of India Act

  2. Assasination of Curzon Willey

  3. Burrah Dacoity

  4. Formation of Indian Home Rule Society

Choose the correct options from the codes given below

  1. 1,2,3,4

  2. 4,3,2,1

  3. 1,3,2,4

  4. 4,2,3,1

Answer b

Explanation:

  • Defence of India Act, 1915 passed primarily to deal with the Ghadrites.

  • 1905—Shyamji Krishnavarma set up Indian Home Rule Society and India House and brought out journal The Sociologist in London

  • 1908—Burrah dacoity by Dacca Anushilan.

  • 1909—Madan Lal Dhingra murdered Curzon-Wyllie

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CHAPTER-14

First World War and Nationalist Response

Q1. Consider the following statements

  1. He was a President of the Indian National Congress (INC) in 1909.

  2. He opposed the separate electorates for Muslims under the Lucknow Pact of 1916.

  3. He was the founder of Ganga Mahasabha.

The above refers to:

  1. a) Mahamana Madan Mohan Malviya

  2. b) Pandit Deen Dayal Upadhyaya

  3. c) Lala Lajpat Rai

  4. d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

 

Answer a

Explanation:

  • MM Malviya was a member of the Imperial Legislative Council from 1912 and when in 1919 it was converted to the Central Legislative Assembly  he remained its member till 1926.

  • He founded Ganga Mahasabha  at Haridwar in 1905. He was a member of the Hindu Mahasabha.

  • He was a moderate leader and opposed communal politics by the British. He was an important figure in the Non-cooperation movement. However, he was opposed to the politics of appeasement by Congress and its participation in the Khilafat movement.

  • Malaviya was the President of the Indian National Congress on two occasions (1909, 1918). He left Congress in 1934.

 

Q2.Consider the following statements.

1” Yugantar Ashram” was the head quarter of Ghadar Party

  1. Rashbehari Bose and Sohan Singh Bhakna were associated with the Ghadar Party

Which of the above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. None

Answer c

Explanation:

  • The Hindustan Association of the Pacific Coast, known as the Gadar Party was founded in 1913 to free India from British slavery. The headquarters of the association was established initially at 436 Hill Street, San Francisco and named as “Yugantar Ashram.”

  • In the news as the GoI decided in 2013 to convert this memorial into a library and Museum.

  • Key members included Lala Har Dayal, Sohan Singh Bhakna, Abdul Hafiz, Mohamed Barakatullah, Kartar Singh Sarabha, and Rashbehari Bose

 

Q3. Consider the following statements  in the context of the nationalist response to British participation in the First World War,

  1. Only Moderates supported the British in the war.

  2. Revolutionaries tried to utilize the opportunity to wage a war on British.

3.Khudiram Bose was hanged due to his involvement in Komagata Maru

Which of the above statements are incorrect

Select the correct codes from the below:

(a) 1and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Abswer c

Explanation:  

The nationalist response to British participation in the war was three-fold:

  • The Moderates supported the empire in the War as a matter of duty.

  • The Extremists, including Tilak (who was released from jail in June 1914), supported the war efforts in belief that Britain would repay India‘s loyalty with gratitude in the form of Swaraj. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

  • The revolutionaries decided to utilize the opportunity to wage a war on British rule and liberate the Hence, statement 2 is correct

  • Khudi ram Bose was hanged for Muzaffarpur Conspiracy in 1908. This incident took place before worldwar

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Q4.Arrange the following events in the Chronological order:

  1. Lucknow Pact

  2. Komagatamaru Incident

  3. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre

  4. Enactment of Rowlatt Act

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1-2-3-4

(b) 2 -1-4-3

(c) 1-2-4-3

(d) 2-4-1-3

Answer: b

Explanation:

1.The Lucknow Pact was an agreement reached between the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League at the joint session of both the parties held in Lucknow in December 1916.

  1. The Komagata Maru was a Japanese steamship that sailed from Hong Kong to Vancouver, Canada via Japan in May, 1914. It was carrying 376 passengers who were immigrants from Punjab, India.

  2. The Jallianwala Bagh massacre, also known as the Amritsar massacre, took place on 13 April 1919 when troops of the British Indian Army under the command of Colonel Reginald Dyer fired rifles into a crowd of Indians, who had gathered in Jallianwala Bagh, Amritsar, Punjab.

  3. 4. Rowlatt Acts, (February 1919), legislation passed by the Imperial Legislative Council, the legislature of British India. The acts allowed certain political cases to be tried without juries and permitted internment of suspects without trial.

 

Q5. Which among the following factors were helpful in  the return of extremists in Congress in 1916?

  1. Efforts of Annie Besant

  2. Efforts by Tilak

  3. Inactivity in Congress after Surat split.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer d

Explanation:

  • Many of the Moderate leaders of the Congress were also unhappy with the choice they had made in 1907 at Surat, and also with the fact that the Congress had lapsed into almost total inactivity

  • They were, therefore, quite sympathetic to Tilak‘s overtures. Further, they were under considerable pressure from Annie Besant, who had just joined the Indian National Congress and was keen to arouse nationalist political activity, to admit the Extremists.

  • At the annual Congress session in December 1914 Pherozeshah Mehta and his Bombay Moderate group opposed the entry of Extremists.

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Q6. Consider the following statements regarding  Tilak’s  Home Rule League Movement:

  1. Tilak’s league demanded Swarajya but was against formation of linguistic states.

  2. Tilak’s league was restricted to Western India.

  3. Gandhi Ji joined the Tilak Home Rule League Movement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer a

Explanation:

Annie Besant started the Home Rule League in September, 1916 and Tilak started it in April 1916.

  • Tilak`s league demanded swarajya, education in vernacular and formation of linguistic states. His league was restricted to Maharashtra (excluding Bombay), Karnatka, Central Provicnce and Berar. It had 6 branches. Hence statement 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct.

  • Tilak’s Home Rule League movement was more organized, and there were many volunteers who worked for Tilak.

  • Gandhi JI did not join any league. Hence statement 3 is not correct

The membership of Annie Besant’s League increased at a rate slower than that of Tilak’s. By March 1917, her League had 7,000 members. Besides her existing Theosophical followers, many others including Jawaharlal Nehru in Allahabad and B. Chakravarti and J. Banerjee in Calcutta joined the Home Rule League. Hence statement 3 is not correct

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Q7. Consider the following statements regarding  Besant’s  Home Rule League Movement:

  1. Besant’s league demanded self-government within the British Empire for all of India.

  2. Annie Besant`s league was spread to other parts of India.

  3. Jawaharlal Nehru joined the Besant’s Home Rule League Movement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Answer d

Explanation:

  • Annie Besant, decided to organise a national alliance of leagues across India, specifically to demand Home Rule, or self-government within the British Empire for all of India.

  • Annie Besant`s league had 200 branches and were spread to other parts of India.

  • The membership of Annie Besant’s League increased at a rate slower than that of Tilak’s. By March 1917, her League had 7,000 members. Besides her existing Theosophical followers, many others including Jawaharlal Nehru in Allahabad and B. Chakravarti and J. Banerjee in Calcutta joined the Home Rule League. Hence statement 3 is correct.

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Q8.Which of the following is/are the diffence between Tilak and Besants home rule league(HRL)

  1. Besant’s home rule league was started before Tilak’s

  2. Tilak’s HRL was more organized  and systematic than Beasant’s.

Which of the above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. None

Answer b

Explanation:  

  • Annie Besant started the Home Rule League in September, 1916 and Tilak started it in April 1916.

  • Hence statement 1 is not correct.

  • Annie Besant`s league had 200 branches and were spread to other parts of India. But as far as organization skill is concerned, Tilak’s Home Rule League movement was more organized, and there were many volunteers who worked for Tilak.

  • The membership of Annie Besant’s League increased at a rate slower than that of Tilak’s.

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Q9) The Muddiman Committee was formed to

  1. a) To study the impact of Division Of Bengal

  2. b) To recommend nature of provincial administration for Government of India Act 1935.

  3. c) To study the impact of Communal Awards and suggest remedial measure

  4. d) To study and pinpoint defects in Government of India Act 1919

Answer d

Muddiman Committee

  • Muddiman Committee was appointed by the Government of India at the beginning of 1924.

  • It was established for making an investigation into the working of the constitution as set up in 1921 under the India Act of 1919.

  • The committee was set up due to the growing political unrest on the dyarchy issue of the Constitution.

  • The committee was also known as the Reforms Enquiry Committee.

  • It had Sir Alexander Muddiman as the chairman, who served as the then Home Member of the Government of India.

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CHAPTER-15

Emergence of Gandhi

1.The principle of ‘Nai Talim’ was propounded by

(a) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

(b) Mahatma Gandhi

(c) Syed Ahmed Khan

(d) Debendranath Tagore

Answer b

Nai Talim

Gandhiji conceptualised in his revolutionary Nai Talim or Basic Education for All, in 1937. The Story of Nai Talim, that in Gandhiji’s perception, this curriculum aimed at preparing a good society, not just a literate and/or educated one. Seen from the context of an education system specially developed for a newly born democratic nation, it can be said that Nai Talim aimed to fructify education that gave freedom; freedom from ignorance, illiteracy, superstition, psyche of servitude, and many more taboos that inhibited free thinking of a free India. In Gandhiji’s words and vision, Nai Talim was aimed at becoming the spearhead of a silent social revolution.

The range of teaching tools that Gandhiji prescribed to actualise Nai Talim were as revolutionary and unconventional as the concept itself.

For holistic development of body, mind and soul, he firstly emphasised on useful and purposeful physical labour. Mind is a part of our body, and so are hands, legs, torso, spine. If the mind develops at the cost of the rest of the body, it would be so callous!

Moreover, it would result in uncoordinated growth, and that is not what Gandhiji wanted India to become, a nation of strong minds and weak bodies, or vice versa. With the addition of heart or soul, the mind­body­soul combine completes Gandhiji’s vision of inclusive, coordinated education.

Handicrafts, art and drawing are the most fundamental teaching tools in Nai Talim pedagogy. Spinning and weaving, which can be aptly deduced to spinning khadi, were Gandhiji’s favourite techniques for implementing Nai Talim.

Gandhiji was so confident about the efficacy of this method that he professed teaching through art and craft even before teaching alphabets.

The Nai Talim pedagogy thus sought to create free and enlightened individuals, who would then constitute a good society, not just a free country.

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Q2.Non-violenceas a tool for Independence was adopted because

  1. Non-violence would broaden the base of the national movement.

  2. British never followed the rule of law.

  3. Unarmed opposition was never suppressed by the British.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 and 2 only

  2. 2 and 3 only

  3. 1 only

  4. 1 and 3 only

 Answer : C

Explanation: Non Voilence  was essential to achieve the following  objectives:

  • To broaden the participation in the movement.

  • To fight British without arms. They respected rule of law and generally did not crush movements which did not violate the law. It put the rulers in a dilemma. By not acting their position would weaken. By acting their image of a benevolent ruler would be eroded.

  • Women were able to participate in this way.

  • Disarmed people hardly had any alternative

 

 

 

3.Consider the following statements about the meaning of SWARAJ by Gandhi Ji

  1. SWaraj is intimately linked with Ahimsa and Satyagraha

2.Swaraj has two senses- one political and one beyond realm of politics

3.Swaraj is something that requires time and patience to acquire.

  1. With determination Swaraj could be obtained easily

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 and 2 only

b.1, 2 and 4 only

  1. 2 and 4 only

  2. 1 ,2 and 3 only

 Answer : d

Explanation: Statement 4 is incorrect as Gandhi always emphasized on hard work and core determination but never termed SWARAJ too easy to ge

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Q4. What was the formative influenes on philosophy of Mahatma Gandhi

  1. Gandhi JI was influenced by the 18th century Pranami sect that advocated the unity of Faiths

2.Gandhiji was influenced by the theosophists

3.Gandhi ji was an admirer of the writings of Romantics like Wordsworth

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 and 2 only

  2. 2 and 3 only

  3. 2 only

  4. 1,2 and 3 only

Answer d

Explanation: All the statements are correct

  • Mahatma Gandhi’s mother, Putlibai, belonged to Pranami sect. Gandhi in his book My Experiments With Truth mentions about this sect – “Pranami is a sect deriving the best of both the Quran and Gita, in search of one goal – God.”

  • A few lines later in his Autobiography, Gandhi says that he visited the Blavatsky Lodge of the theosophical movement in London and was personally introduced to Helena P. Blavatsky. And he writes:

“I recall having read, at the brothers’ instance, Madame Blavatsky’s Key to Theosophy. This book stimulated in me the desire to read books on Hinduism, and disabused me of the notion fostered by the missionaries that Hinduism was rife with superstition.”

  • Gandhi in 20th century was deeply concerned about the discord between the moral intuitions and the scientific mechanism. Horrified by the artificialities and luxuries of modern life, Gandhi, like Rousseau and Wordsworth, turned to the rural culture for its stark simplicity and vitality. “When we have become village-minded we will not want imitations of the west or machine-made products, but we will develop a true national taste in keeping with vision of a new India in which pauperism, starvation and idleness will be unknown.”

 

 

Q5. Consider the following statements about Md. Ali Jinnah

  1. He was the president of congress in 1919 session.

  2. He attended all the round table conferences

  3. He was instrumental in the Lucknow pact of 1916

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 and 2 only

  2. 2 and 3 only

  3. 3 only

  4. 1,2 and 3 only

Answer c

Explanation:

  • Lucknow Pact, (December 1916), agreement made by the Indian National Congress headed by Maratha leader Bal Gangadhar Tilak and the All-India Muslim League led by Muhammad Ali Jinnah; it was adopted by the Congress at its Lucknow session on December 29 and by the league on Dec. 31, 1916. The meeting at Lucknow marked the reunion of the moderate and radical wings of the Congress. The pact dealt both with the structure of the government of India and with the relation of the Hindu and Muslim communities.

  • Mohammad Ali Jinnah had attended first and second round table conference. BR Ambedkar had attended all three Round Table conferences.

  • He was never the president of Congress

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Q6. Consider the following statements  wrt to Gandhi’s view

  1. Gandhi was against largescale industrialisation.

  2. He was not against instruments and machinery that saved individual labour.

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. None

Answer c

  • He was against largescale industrialisation.

  • He had strong objections to labour saving machinery. “Men go on saving labour, till thousands are without work and thrown on the open streets to die of starvation”.

  • He was not against instruments and machinery that saved individual labour.

  • He wrote that “mechanisation is good when the hands are too few for the work intended to be accomplished.

  • It is an evil when there are more hands than required for the work, as is the case in India”.

 

 

 

Q7. Consider the following statements  wrt to Gandhi’s view

  1. The capitalist who amassed wealth was a thief, according to Gandhi.

  2. He put forward his theory of trusteeship for capitalists.

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. None

Answer c

Explanation:

  • The capitalist who amassed wealth was a thief, according to Gandhi.

  • In his opinion, if a person had inherited wealth or had made a lot of money through trade and industry, the amount was to be shared with the entire society and must be spent on the welfare of all.

  • He put forward his theory of trusteeship under which he wanted the capitalists to be trustees, and as such would take care of not only themselves but also of others.

  • The workers would consider the capitalists as their benefactors and would keep faith in them. So there would be mutual trust and confidence, and as a consequence the ideal of economic equality could be achieved.

 

Q8.Consider the following statements

  1. Bose advocated the promotion of cottage industry for India’s industrialization.

  2. Gandhi was much impressed by the success attained by the Soviet Union in economic development

  3. Growth through rapid industrialisation within a short period of time was main intention of Gandhi.

Which of the above statement/s is/are incorrect

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 and 2 only

  2. 2 and 3 only

  3. 3 only

  4. 1,2 and 3 only

Answer d

Explanation:

  • Bose was much impressed by the success attained by the Soviet Union in economic development through rapid industrialisation within a short period of time. Hence 1 is incorrect

  • Bose had his reasons for demanding industrialisation for India.

  • It would solve the problem of unemployment. Socialism, he said, was to be the basis of national reconstruction and socialism presupposed industrialisation.

  • Moreover, industrialisation was necessary if India were to compete with foreign countries. Industrialisation was also necessary for improving the standard of living of the people at large.

  • Bose classified industry into three categories: heavy, medium, and cottage. Heavy industries, he said, form the backbone of the national economy.

  • But he was fully aware of the great importance of cottage industries. “Industrialisation does not … mean that we turn our back on cottage industries. . . .  Hence 3 is incorrect

  • It only means that we shall have to decide which industries should be developed on a cottage basis and which on a largescale basis.

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Q9.Consider the following with respect to Gandhi and God

  1. God is Truth and Love

  2. God is ethics and morality

  3. God is fearlessness.

  4. God is the source of Light and Life

  5. God is conscience

  6. God is the atheism of the atheist.

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 ,2 ,5,and 6 only

  2. 2 ,3,and 5 only

c.1,  3, 4 , and 5  only

  1. All the above

Answer d

Explanation: 

Gandhi Said : God is Truth and Love; God is ethics and morality; God is fearlessness. God is the source of Light  and Life and yet He is above and beyond all these, God is conscience. He is even the atheism of the atheist. For in His boundless love God permits the atheist to live.”

 

Q10. Consider the following statements

  1. Gandhi Ji was highly influenced by the Satnami sect

  2. His mother Putli Bai was from the Satnami sect

  3. He would separate state and religion, for the basic tenets of religion and state were at conflict.

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 and 2 only

  2. 2 and 3 only

  3. 3 only

  4. 1,2 and 3 only

Answer a

Explanation:

  • He claimed that religion is a binding force and not a dividing force.

  • He said that each person should follow his or her own religion freely.

  • He would not conceive of a state without religion, for the basic tenets of his religion were at the base of his idea of state too.

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CHAPTER-16

Non-Cooperation Movement and  Khilafat Aandolan

Chapter 16 NCM

1.Which of the following were not the causes behind the launch of ‘Non-cooperation Movement

  1. Resentment with Rowlatt Act

  2. Khilafat in Turkey

  3. Punjab Ills of 1919

Select the correct code

  1. All of the above

  2. 1 and 3 only

  3. 2 and 3 only

  4. None of the above

Answer d

Explanation:

Rowlatt Act: The Act curbed fundamental rights such as the freedom of expression and strengthened police powers. In April 1919 there were a number of demonstrations and hartals in the country and the government used brutal measures to suppress them. The Jallianwala Bagh atrocities, inflicted by General Dyer in Amritsar on Baisakhi day were a part of this repression.

The Khilafat issue was another such cause. In 1920 the British imposed a harsh treaty on the Turkish Sultan or Khalifa. People were furious about this as they had been about the Jallianwala massacre. Also, Indian Muslims were keen that the Khalifa be allowed to retain control over Muslim sacred places in the erstwhile Ottoman Empire.

The leaders of the Khilafat agitation, Mohammad Ali and Shaukat Ali, wished to initiate a full-fledged Non-Cooperation Movement. Gandhiji supported their call and urged the Congress to campaign against ‘Punjab wrongs'(Jallianwala massacre), the Khilafat wrong and demand swaraj

 

 

Q2) Consider the following statements with respect to the Rowlatt Act, 1919?

  1. The acts allowed certain political cases to be tried without juries.

  2. It gave the government powers of preventive detention for indefinite period of time without trial.

3.It was repealed during Viceroyship of Lord Irwin.

Which of the above statements are correct:

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 and 2 only

  2. 2 and 3 only

  3. 1 and 3 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3 only

 

Answer a

Explanation:

  • The Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act, 1919 (Rowlatt Act) was a legislative act passed by the Imperial Legislative Council in Delhi in 1919, indefinitely extending the emergency measures of preventive indefinite detention, incarceration without trial and judicial review enacted in the Defence of India Act 1915 during the First World War.

  • It was enacted in light of a perceived threat from revolutionary nationalist organisations of re-engaging in similar conspiracies as during the war

  • Lord Reading 1921-1926

(i) Chauri Chaura incident (February 5, 1922) and the subsequent withdrawal of Non-Cooperation Movement.

(ii) Moplah rebellion in Kerala (1921).

(iii) Repeal of the Press Act of 1910 and the Rowlatt Act of 1919

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Q3. In which among the following instances did Mahatma Gandhi not resort to fast?

  1. In 1935 against Government India Act

  2. Ahmadabad Mill Strike

  3. In 1948 for Communal peace in Delhi

  4. After Kakori incident

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer c

Explanation:  

Gandhiji resorted to fast in the following cases:

  1. Ahmedabad Mill Strike

  2. After Jalianwalla Bagh Massacre

  3. After Chauri Chaura incident

  4. In 1924 for 21 days for Hindu Muslim Unity

  5. In 1932 against Communal Award

  6. 2 fasts in 1934 to convince followers of seriousness of Harijan Campaign

  7. During Quit India Movement against government

  8. In 1948 for Communal peace in De

 

Q4. consider the following statements:

  1. It aimed get rid of mahants in Gurudwaras

  2. Violent protests were adopted as means to achieve the goal of the movement.

With reference to Gurudwara reform movement,

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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CHAPTER-17

Emergence of Swarajists, Socialist Ideas, Revolutionary Activities and Other New Forces

 

Q1) What was Gandhiji’s view towards Swarajist leaders?

  1. He was opposed to the council-entry program of Swarajists.

  2. JL Nehru and Sardar Patel were part of Swaraj Party

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. a) 1 only

  2. b) 2 only

  3. c) Both 1 and 2

  4. d) None

Answer a

The following was a statements made by Gandhiji, “Nor is the difference between them and myself one of mere detail. There is fundamental difference.”

I retain the opinion that Council-entry is inconsistent with Non-cooperation, as I conceive it. Nor is this difference a mere matter of interpretation of the word “Non-co-operation,” but relates to the essential mental attitude resulting in different treatment of vital points.”

He further says, “It is with reference to such mental attitude that the success or the failure of the Triple Boycott is to be judged, and not merely by a reference to the actual results attained. It is from advantages to the country than to be in them. I have, however, failed to convince my Swarajist friends but I recognise that so long as they are otherwise, their place is undoubtedly in the Councils. It is the best for us all.”

This clearly tells us that he was opposed to the council entry programme of Swarajists (statement 1 is correct)

Hence C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru resigned from the presidentship and secretaryship respectively of the Congress and announced the formation of Congress-Khilafat Swarajya Party or simply Swarajist Party, with C.R. Das as the president and Motilal Nehru as one of the secretaries. Patel and JL Nehru were part of Congress.

 

 

 

 

 

Q2.With reference to the Responsivists  group, consider the  following statements:

  1. They supported the government and wanted to hold government office .

  2. They emerged from the justice Party.

  3. N.C. Kelkar, M.R. Jayakar and Lala Lajpat Rai were part of it.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer a

EXPLANATION:

  • A group of Responsivists arose in the Swaraj party, after riots of 1924, who wanted to work the reforms and to hold office wherever possible. They offered support to the government for the protection of Hindu interests. The Responsivists joined the Government in the Central Provinces. Hence, statements 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect

  • Their ranks were soon swelled by C. Kelkar, M.R. Jayakar and other leaders. Lajpat Rai and Madan Mohan Malaviya too separated themselves from the Swaraj Party on Responsivist as well as communal grounds. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

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CHAPTER-18

Simon Commission and the Nehru Report

  1. Consider the following statements with regard to the Nehru report?

  2. It demanded dominian status for India.

2.It advocated for separate electorates and  reservation of seats for minorities.

  1. Provision of fundamental rights for the people of India in the constitution

Select the correct codes from the below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer C

Explanation: The Nehru Report confined itself to British India, as it envisaged the future link-up of British India with the princely states on a federal basis. For the dominion it recommended:

(i) Dominion status on lines of self-governing dominions as the form of government desired by Indians (much to the chagrin of younger, militant section—Nehru being prominent among them). Hence Statement 1 is corect

(ii) Rejection of separate electorates which had been the basis of constitutional reforms so far; instead, a demand for joint electorates with reservation of seats for Muslims at the Centre and in provinces where they were in minority (and not in those where Muslims were in majority, such as Punjab and Bengal) in proportion to the Muslim population there with right to contest additional seats.  Hence Statement 2 is incorect

(iii) Linguistic provinces.

(iv) Nineteen fundamental rights including equal rights for women, right to form unions, and universal adult suffrage. Hence Statement 3 is correct

(v) Responsible government at the Centre and in provinces—

(a) The Indian Parliament at the Centre to consist of 500-member House of Representatives elected on the basis of adult suffrage, a 200-member Senate to be elected by provincial councils; the House of Representatives to have a tenure of 5 years and the Senate, one of 7 years; the central government to be headed by a governor-general, appointed by the British government but paid out of Indian revenues, who would act on the advice of the central executive council responsible to the Parliament.

(b) Provincial councils to have a 5-year tenure, headed by a governor acting on the advice of the provincial executive council.

(vi) Full protection to cultural and religious interests of Muslims.

(vii) Complete dissociation of State from religion.

 

Q2. Consider the following statements with regard to the Simon Commission?

  1. Simon commission was appointed to study the progress of the governance scheme in India.

  2. Provision for Appointment of such commission was in 1909 reforms.

  3. The commission was to recommend to the British government whether India was ready for further constitutional reforms and along what lines.

Select the correct codes from the below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer C

Explanation:

  • Statement 2 is incorrect :The Government of India Act, 1919 had a provision that a commission would be appointed ten years from date to study the progress of the governance scheme and suggest new steps.

  • An all-white, seven-member Indian Statutory Commission, popularly known as the Simon Commission (after the name of its chairman, Sir John Simon), was set up by the British government under Stanley Baldwin’s prime ministership on November 8, 1927.

  • The commission was to recommend to the British government whether India was ready for further constitutional reforms and along what lines.

Q3. Consider the following statements with regard to the Lee Commission?

  1. It was constituted to consider the ethnic composition of the superior Indian public services of the government of India.

  2. Lee Commission proposed in 1924 that 60 percent of future entrants should be British

Which of the above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. None

Answer a

  • Lee Commission, body appointed by the British government in 1923 to consider the ethnic composition of the superior Indian public services of the government of India. The chairman was Lord Lee of Fareham, and there were equal numbers of Indian and British members.

  • The Islington Commission’s report (1917) had recommended that 25 percent of the higher government posts should go to Indians. That report had become a dead letter in 1918, when the Montagu-Chelmsford Report proposed Indian appointments to one-third of the posts. Simultaneous examinations were instituted in London and New Delhi in 1922. But by this time, because of political uncertainties, there was a shortage of British entrants.

  • The Lee Commission proposed in 1924 that 40 percent of future entrants should be British, 40 percent Indians directly recruited, and 20 percent Indians promoted from the provincial service. By the date of independence in 1947, more than half the service of about 1,000 members were Indians, many with long experience and holding high positions.

 

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Q4. Consider the following statements with regard to the Mudiman Commission?

  1. To enquire into the difficulties arising from Dyarchy

  2. The commission view was that diarchy had absolutely failed and could not succeed at all.

Which of the above is/are incorrect?

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. None

Answer b

Explanation:

  • The Muddiman Committee Report 1924 was the product of the Government of India Act, 1919.

  • After the committee was put into operation, resolutions were pressed in the Imperial legislature, especially led by the Swarajists for the revision of the constitution to secure for India full self-governing Dominion status.

  • The nine member Committee’s terms of reference were:

  • to enquire into the difficulties arising from, or defects inherent in, the working of the Government of India Act and the Rules thereunder in regard to Central Government and the governments of Governors’ provinces;

  • to investigate the feasibility and desirability of securing remedies for such difficulties or defects, consistent with the structure, policy and purpose of the Act, or by such amendments of the Act as appear necessary to rectify any administrative imperfections.

The Muddiman Committee did not submit a unanimous report. The majority view was that the existing constitution was working in most provinces and was affording valuable political experience. Detailed recommendations were made for improving machinery of government. The minority view was that diarchy had absolutely failed and could not succeed at all in the future. Hence statement 2 is incorrect According to them, it was only a fundamental change in the constitution, which could bring about the improvement.

Q5. Consider the following statements with regard to the Simon Commission?

1.Simon Commission consisted of 6 British and 1 Indian member

  1. Congress decided to boycott the commission “at every stage and in every form”.

3 Congress session in Madras 1927 succeeded declared complete independence as the goal of the Congress.

Select the incorrect codes from the below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer a

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect : An all-white, seven-member Indian Statutory Commission, popularly known as the Simon Commission (after the name of its chairman, Sir John Simon), was set up by the British government under Stanley Baldwin’s prime ministership on November 8, 1927.

Statement 2 is correct: The Congress session in Madras (December 1927) meeting under the presidency of M.A. Ansari decided to boycott the commission “at every stage and in every form”. Meanwhile

Statement 3 is correct :Nehru succeeded in getting a snap resolution passed at the session, declaring complete independence as the goal of the Congress.

Q6. Consider the following statements with regard Indian Response to the Simon Commission?

  1. Congress called for boycott of the Simon Commission

  2. Hindu Mahasabha and the majority faction of the Muslim League under Jinnah supported the Simon commission.

  3. Unionists in Punjab and the Justice Party in the south, decided not to boycott the commission.

Select the incorrect codes from the below:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c)  2 only

(d) 3 only

Answer c

Explanation:

  • Those who decided to support the Congress call of boycott of the Simon Commission included the liberals of the Hindu Mahasabha and the majority faction of the Muslim League under Jinnah.

  • The Muslim league had two sessions in 1927 – one under Jinnah at Calcutta where it was decided to oppose the Simon Commission, and another at Lahore under Muhammad Shafi, who supported the government.

  • Some others, such as the Unionists in Punjab and the Justice Party in the south, decided not to boycott the commission.

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7.Consider the following statements regarding Dr Ambedkar

  1. Dr Ambedkar was appointed by the Bombay Legislative Council to work with the Simon Commission.

  2. He argued for ‘universal adult franchise’ in front of commission.

  3. He argued that there is no link between the depressed classes and the Hindu community.

Select the correct codes from the below:

(a) 1,2 and 3 only

 (b) 2 and 3 only

(c)  2 only

(d)1 and 3 only

Answer a

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct Dr Ambedkar was appointed by the Bombay Legislative Council to work with the Simon Commission.

  • Statement 2 is correct: In October 1928, Ambedkar went before the commission. He argued for ‘universal adult franchise’ for both male and female alike; for provincial autonomy in the provinces and dyrarchy at Centre. (Significantly, universal adult franchise was at the time yet to be guaranteed in most of European countries.)

  • On behalf of the Bahishkrita Hitakarini Sabha, he submitted a memorandum on the rights and safeguards he felt were required for the depressed classes.

  • Statement 3 is correct: Ambedkar said that there was no link between the depressed classes and the Hindu community, and stated that the depressed classes should be regarded as a distinct and independent minority.

  • He asserted that the depressed classes as a minority needed far greater political protection than any other minority in British India because of its educational backwardness, its economically poor condition, its social enslavement, and for the reason that it suffered from certain grave political disabilities, from which no other community suffered.

  • In the circumstances, Dr Ambedkar demanded, for the political protection of the depressed classes, representation on the same basis as the Mohammedan minority. He wanted reserved seats for the depressed classes if universal adult franchise was granted. In case universal franchise was not granted, Ambedkar said he would campaign for a separate electorate for the depressed classes.

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Q8. Consider the following statements regarding the impact of Simon Commission?

  1. It gave a stimulus to radical forces demanding reforms on socialist lines

  2. The prospects for Indian unity seemed bright at that point of time.

Which of the above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. None

Answer  c

Explanation:

The impact of the appointment of the Simon Commission on Indian politics was two-fold:

(i) It gave a stimulus to radical forces demanding not just complete independence but major socio-economic reforms on socialist lines. When the Simon Commission was announced, the Congress, which did not have any active programme in hand, got an issue on which it could once again forge mass action.

(ii) The challenge of Lord Birkenhead to Indian politicians to produce an agreed constitution was accepted by various political sections, and thus prospects for Indian unity seemed bright at that point of time.

 

9.Which of the following is not a recommendation of Simon Commission.

  1. It proposed the abolition of diarchy

  2. It proposed provincial autonomy

  3. Governor should have discretionary power in relation to internal security

  4. It also recommended that separate communal electorates be abolished

Answer d

Explanation: The Simon Commission published a two-volume report in May 1930.

  • It proposed the abolition of dyarchy and the establishment of representative government in the provinces which should be given autonomy.

  • It said that the governorshould have discretionary power in relation to internalsecurity and administrative powers to protect the different communities.

  • The number of members of provincial legislative council should be increased.The report rejected parliamentary responsibility at the centre.

  • The governor-general was to have complete power to appoint the members of the cabinet. And the Government of India would have complete control over the high court.

  • It also recommended that separate communal electorates be retained (and extended such electorates to other communities) but only until tensions between Hindus and Muslims had died down.

 

 

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  1. Which of the following is/are recommendations of Simon Commission.

  2. There was to be universal franchise in India

  3. Consultative Council of Greater India should be established including representatives of both the British provinces and princely states.

3.It proposed for separation of Burma and Sindh.

Select the correct codes from the below:

(a) 1,2 and 3 only

 (b) 2 and 3 only

(c)  2 only

(d)1 and 3 only

Answer b

Explanation:   There was to be no universal franchise. It accepted the idea of federalism but not in the near future; it suggested that a Consultative Council of Greater India should be established which should include representatives of both the British provinces as well as princely states.

It suggested that the North-West Frontier Province and Baluchistan should get local legislatures, and both NWFP and Baluchistan should have the right to be represented at the centre.

It recommended that Sindh should be separated from Bombay, and Burma should be separated from India because it was not a natural part of the Indian subcontinent.

It also suggested that the Indian army should be Indianised  though British forces must be retained. India got fully equipped.

 

 

11.which of the following were not part of  Jinnah’s Fourteen Points

  1. Federal Constitution with residual powers to provinces.

  2. One-third Muslim representation in the central legislature

  3. Separate electorates.

  4. In any cabinet at the centre or in the provinces, one half to be Muslims.

Answer d

 

 

Explanation:  The fourteen points were as follows.

  1. Federal Constitution with residual powers to provinces.

  2. Provincial autonomy.

  3. No constitutional amendment by the centre without the concurrence of the states constituting the Indian federation.

  4. All legislatures and elected bodies to have adequate representation of Muslims in every province without reducing a majority of Muslims in a province to a minority or equality.

  5. Adequate representation to Muslims in the services and in self-governing bodies.

  6. One-third Muslim representation in the central legislature.

  7. In any cabinet at the centre or in the provinces, onethird to be Muslims.

  8. Separate electorates.

  9. No bill or resolution in any legislature to be passed if three-fourths of a minority community consider such a bill or resolution to be against their interests.

  10. Any territorial redistribution not to affect the Muslim majority in Punjab, Bengal and NWFP.

  11. Separation of Sindh from Bombay.

  12. Constitutional reforms in the NWFP and Baluchistan.

  13. Full religious freedom to all communities.

  14. Protection of Muslim rights in religion, culture, education and language.

 

12.Consider the following statements

  1. Muslim league was against the Nehru Report.

  2. Hindu Mahasabha supported the Nehru report.

  3. Independence for India League was established by Jawahar Lal Nehru and SC Bose.

Select the correct codes from the below:

(a) 1,2 and 3 only

 (b) 2 and 3 only

(c)  2 only

(d)1 and 3 only

Answer d

Explanation:

  • Not only were the Muslim League, the Hindu Mahasabha and the Sikh communalists unhappy about the Nehru Report, but the younger section of the Congress led by Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhash Bose were also angered.

  • The younger section regarded the idea of dominion status in the report as a step backward, and the developments at the All Parties Conference strengthened their criticism of the dominion status idea.

  • Nehru and Subhash Bose rejected the Congress’ modified goal and jointly set up the Independence for India League.

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13.Arrange the following historical events chronologically

  1. Bomb in the Central Legislative Assembly

2.Kakori train robbery

3.Chittagong Armoury Raid

  1. Arrival of Simon Commission

Select the correct codes from the below:

  1. 1-2-3-4

  2. 2-1-4-3

  3. 2-4-1-3

  4. 1-3-2-4

 

Answer b

Kakori Robbery (August 1925)

The most important action of the HRA was the Kakori robbery. The men held up the 8-Down train at Kakori, an obscure village near Lucknow, and looted its official railway cash. Government crackdown after the Kakori robbery led to arrests of many, of whom 17 were jailed, four transported for life and four—Bismil, Ashfaqullah, Roshan Singh and Rajendra Lahiri—were hanged.

Bomb in the Central Legislative Assembly (April 1929)

The HSRA leadership now decided to let the people know about its changed objectives and the need for a revolution by the masses. Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar Dutt were asked to throw a bomb in the Central Legislative Assembly on April 8, 1929 to protest against the passage of the Public Safety Bill and Trade Disputes Bill aimed at curtailing civil liberties of citizens in general and workers in particular. The bombs had been deliberately made harmless and were aimed at making ‘the deaf hear’. The objective was to get arrested and to use the trial court as a forum for propaganda so that people would become familiar with their movement and ideology.

Simon Commission

An all-white, seven-member Indian Statutory Commission, popularly known as the Simon Commission (after the name of its chairman, Sir John Simon), was set up by the British government under Stanley Baldwin’s prime ministership on November 8, 1927.

Chittagong Armoury Raid (April 1930)

  • Surya Sen had participated in the Non-Cooperation Movement and had become a teacher in the national school in Chittagong.

  • He was the secretary of the Chittagong District Congress Committee. He used to say ”Humanism is a special virtue of a revolutionary.” He was a lover of poetry and an admirer of Tagore and Qazi Nazrul Islam.

  • Surya Sen decided to organise an armed rebellion along with his associates—Anant Singh, Ganesh Ghosh and Lokenath Baul—to show that it was possible to challenge the armed might of the mighty British Empire.

  • They had planned to occupy two main armouries in Chittagong to seize and supply arms to the revolutionaries to destroy telephone and telegraph lines and to dislocate the railway link of Chittagong with the rest of Bengal.

  • The raid was conducted in April 1930 and involved 65 activists under the banner of Indian Republican Army—Chittagong Branch.

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CHAPTER-19

Civil Disobedience Movement and Round Table Conferences

Q1.Consider the following statements with respect to the Indian National Congress session 1929

1.The Lahore session of the Indian National Congress  1929 adopted  ‘Purna Swaraj’ as goal of INC.

  1. Launch a programme of civil disobedience.

3.Boycot of Round Table Conference.

Which of the above statements are correct

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 and 2 only

  2. 2 and 3 only

  3. 1 and 3 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer : d

Explanation:  The following major decisions were taken at the Lahore session.

  • The Round Table Conference was to be boycotted.

  • Complete independence was declared as the aim of the Congress.

  • Congress Working Committee was authorised to launch a programme of civil disobedience including non-payment of taxes and all members of legislatures were asked to resign their seats.

  • January 26, 1930 was fixed as the first Independence (Swarajya) Day, to be celebrated everywhere.

 

Q2. What were the reasons for the opposition of Communal Award of 1932 by the national  leaders

  1. The Award allotted to each minority a number of seats in the legislatures to be elected on the basis of a separate electorate.

  2. The Award declared the Depressed Classes to be a minority community

Which of the above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. None

Answer: c

Explanation:

Main Provisions of the Communal Award

  • Muslims, Europeans, Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo Indians, depressed classes, women, and even the Marathas were to get separate electorates. Such an arrangement for the depressed classes was to be made for a period of 20 years.

  • In the provincial legislatures, the seats were to be distributed on communal basis.

  • The existing seats of the provincial legislatures were to be doubled.

  • The Muslims, wherever they were in minority, were to be granted a weightage.

  • Except in the North West Frontier Province, 3 per cent seats were to be reserved for women in all provinces.

  • The depressed classes to be declared/accorded the status of minority.

  • The depressed classes were to get ‘double vote’, one to be used through separate electorates and the other to be used in the general electorates.

  • Allocation of seats were to be made for labourers, landlords, traders and industrialists.

  • In the province of Bombay, 7 seats were to be allocated for the Marathas.

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Q3.Consider the following statements wrt  Subash Chandra Bose

  1. He was vehemently was in favour of the suspension of the Civil Disobedience Movement

  2. He was vehemently against the signing of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact in 1931

  3. He did not take part in the Salt Satyagraha Movement in 1930

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

 

Answer a

Explanation:

  • He was again fully active in the Salt Satyagraha Movement in 1930, forcing the government to arrest him. \

  • He was vehemently against the suspension of the Civil Disobedience Movement and the signing of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact in 1931, Hence only 2 is correct

  • especially as the government refused to negotiate on the death sentence for Bhagat Singh and his associates.

  • From all this we get a clear idea that Bose was a man of action and radical ideas.

 

            

1 . Congress Socialist Party was started in 1934 by:

  1. BR Ambedkar

  2. A. N. Dev

  3. J. P. Narayan

  4. Jagjeevan ram

Select the correct codes from the below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 , 3 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

Answer c

Formed in 1934 as Congress Socialist Party (SP), with its own constitution, membership, discipline and ideology, it remained within the Congress Party till March 1948. Their disassociation as a protest against the Congress’s move towards the right and its growing authoritarian tendencies was announced at a meeting in Nashik on March 28, 1948.

Founder :  Rambriksh Benipuri, Jai Prakash Narayan, Ram Manohar Lohia, Acharya Narendra Deva

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Q2.Consider the following statements

  1. JL Nehru considered the withdrawal of the Civil Disobedience Movement and council entry “a spiritual defeat”.

  2. He argued that class organizations like kisan sabhas and trade unions. should be allowed to affiliate with the Congress

Which of the following statements is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. None

Answer c

Explanation:

  • Nehru said, “The basic goal before Indian people as before people of the world is abolition of capitalism and establishment of socialism.”

  • He considered the withdrawal of the Civil Disobedience Movement and council entry “a spiritual defeat”, “a surrender of ideals” and “a retreat from revolutionary to reformist mentality”.

  • He suggested that the vested interests be revised in favour of the masses by taking up the economic and class demands of peasants and workers, and landlords and capitalists, organising masses in their class organisations—kisan sabhas and trade unions.

  • He argued that these class organizations should be allowed to affiliate with the Congress, thus influencing its policies and activities.

  • There could be no genuine anti-imperialist struggle, he said, without incorporating the class struggle of the masses.

 

Q3. Consider the following statements

  1. JL Nehru was a firm believer of Struggle Truce Struggle philosophy

  2. He argued that there should be a continuous confrontation and conflict with imperialism till it was overthrown.

Which of the following statements is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. None

Answer b

Explanation: 

  • A large number of Congressmen led by Gandhi believed that a mass phase of movement (struggle phase) had to be followed by a phase of reprieve (truce phase) before the next stage of mass struggle could be taken up.

  • The truce period, it was argued, would enable the masses to recoup their strength to fight and also give the government a chance torespond to the demands of the nationalists.

  • The masses could not go on sacrificing indefinitely. If the government did not respond positively, the movement could be resumed again with the participation of the masses.

  • This was the struggletruce-struggle or S-T-S strategy.

  • Criticising the S-T-S strategy, Nehru argued that the Indian national movement had reached a stage, after the Lahore Congress call for purna swaraj programme, in which there should be a continuous confrontation and conflict with imperialism till it was overthrown.

  • He advocated maintenance of a “continuous direct action” policy by the Congress and without the interposition of a constitutionalist phase. Real power, he said, cannot be won by two annas and four annas.Against an S-T-S strategy, he suggested a Struggle-Victory (S-V) strategy.

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Q4.Consider the following statements

  1. Gandhi Ji was against the Parliamentary politics by the congressmen after the civil disobedience movement

  2. Elections to the Central Legislative Assembly were fought independently without support of Congress.

  3. Congress captured 45 out of 75 seats reserved for Indians.

Which of the following statements is/are incorrect

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Answer c

Explanation:

  • In May 1934, the All India Congress Committee (AICC) met at Patna to set up a Parliamentary Board to fight elections under the aegis of the Congress itself.

  • A large section of the intelligentsia favoured parliamentary politics with which Gandhi Ji was in fundamental disagreement.

  • The right wing was no less accommodating. In the elections to the Central Legislative Assembly held in November 1934, the Congress captured 45 out of 75 seats reserved for Indians.

 

 

Q5. Consider the following statements

  1. Government of India Act, 1935 came up with an All India Federation

  2. The proposed federation in Government of India Act, 1935 never came up due to inagreement of Congress.

Which of the following statements is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. None

Answer a

Explaantion:

The Government of India Act was passed by the British Parliament in August 1935.

 Its main provisions were as follows.

  1. An All India Federation It was to comprise all British Indian provinces, all chief commissioner’s provinces and the Indian states (princely states). The federation’s formation was conditional on the fulfilment of:

 (i) States with allotment of 52 seats in the proposed Council of States should agree to join the federation; and

(ii) Aggregate population of states in the above category should be 50 per cent of the total population of all Indian states.

 Since these conditions were not fulfilled, the proposed federation never came up. The central government carried on upto 1946 as per the provisions of Government of India Act, 1919.

 

 

Q6. Which of following were the provisions of act of 1935

  1. Subjects to be administered were divided into reserved and transferred subjects at the federal level.

  2. Reserved subjects contained foreign affairs, defence, tribal areas and ecclesiastical affairs

Which of the following statements is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. None

Answer c

Explanation:

 Federal Level: Executive

  • The governor-general was the pivot of the entire Constitution.

  • Subjects to be administered were divided into reserved and transferred subjects. Reserved subjects—foreign affairs,

defence, tribal areas and ecclesiastical affairs

 

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Q7.Which of following were the provisions of act of 1935

  1. Reserve lists were to be exclusively administered by the governor-general on the advice of ministers elected by the legislature.

  2. Transferred subjects included all other subjects and were to be administered by the governor-general on the advice of executive councillors.

 

Which of the following statements is/are incorrect

Select the correct answer using the codes below.                   

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. None

Answer c

Explanation:

  • Subjects to be administered were divided into reserved and transferred subjects. Reserved subjects—foreign affairs, defence, tribal areas and ecclesiastical affairs—were to be exclusively administered by the governor-general on the advice of executive councillors.

  • Executive councillors were not to be responsible to the central legislature. Transferred subjects included all other subjects and were to be administered by the governor-general on the advice of ministers elected by the legislature.

  • These ministers were to be responsible to the federal legislature and were to resign on losing the confidence of the body.

 

Q8. Consider the following statements provisions of act of 1935

  1. The Federal Assembly was to be a partly indirectly elected from British Indian provinces and partly (one-third) nominated by the princes.

  2. Council of States was to be a permanent body with one-third members retiring every third year.

  3. The duration of the assembly was to be 3 years.

Which of the following statements is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Answer b

Explanation:

 Legislature

  • The bicameral legislature was to have an upper house (Council of States) and a lower house (Federal Assembly). The Council of States was to be a 260-member house, partly directly elected from British Indian provinces and partly (40 per cent) nominated by the princes. The Federal Assembly was to be a 375-member house, partly indirectly elected from British Indian provinces and partly (one-third) nominated by the princes.

  • Oddly enough, election to the Council of States was direct and that to the Federal Assembly, indirect.

  • Council of States was to be a permanent body with one-third members retiring every third year. The duration of the assembly was to be 5 years

Statement 3 is incorrect

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Q9. Consider the following statements with respect to 1935 act

  1. Members of Federal Assembly could move a vote of no-confidence against ministers.

  2. Council of States could not move a vote of no-confidence.

  3. The system of religion-based and class-based electorates was removed

Which of the following statements is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer d

Explanation:

 Council of States was to be a permanent body with one-third members retiring every third year.

  • The duration ofthe assembly was to be 5 years.

  • The three lists for legislation purposes were to be federal, provincial and concurrent.

  • Members of Federal Assembly could move a vote of no-confidence against ministers. Council of States could not move a vote of no-confidence.

  • The system of religion-based and class-based electorates was further extended.

Q10.Consider the following statements wrt provisions of act of 1935

  1. Provincial autonomy replaced dyarchy.

  2. Provinces were given independent financial powers and resources.

  3. Provincial governments could not borrow money on their own security.

Which of the following statements is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer b

Explaantion:

Provincial Autonomy ● Provincial autonomy replaced dyarchy.

  • Provinces were granted autonomy and separate legal identity.

  • Provinces were freed from “the superintendence, direction” of the secretary of state and governor-general. Provinces henceforth derived their legal authority directly from the British Crown.

  • Provinces were given independent financial powers and resources. Provincial governments could borrow money on their own security.

Statement 3 is incorrect

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Q11.Consider the following statements wrt provisions of act of 1935

  1. The Act provided a rigid constitution with no possibility of internal growth.

  2. Right of amendment was reserved with the Viceroy.

Which of the following statements is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. None

Answer a

Explanation:

  • Numerous ‘safeguards’ and ‘special responsibilities’ of the governor-general worked as brakes in the proper functioning of the Act.

  • The Act provided a rigid constitution with no possibility of internal growth. Right of amendment was reserved with the British Parliament.

  • Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Q12. Consider the following statements wrt provisions of act of 1935

  1. The Act enfranchised 54 per cent of British Indian population.

  2. The Act extended the system of communal electorates

  3. The Act promoted separatist tendencies which culminated in partition of India.

Which of the following statements is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer c

Explanation:

Evaluation of the Act

  • Numerous ‘safeguards’ and ‘special responsibilities’ of the governor-general worked as brakes in the proper functioning of the Act.

  • In provinces, the governor still had extensive powers.

  • The Act enfranchised 14 per cent of British Indian population.

  • The extension of the system of communal electorates and representation of various interests promoted separatist tendencies which culminated in partition of India.

  • The Act provided a rigid constitution with no possibility of internal growth. Right of amendment was reserved with the British Parliament.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

 

 

 

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Q13. British introduced 1935 reforms with intension of

Which of the following is incorrect

  1. Reforms would revive the political standing of constitutionalist liberals

  2. Reforms would convince a large section of Congressmen of the ineffectiveness of an extra-legal struggle.

  3. Once Congressmen tasted power, they would be reluctant to go back to politics of sacrifice.

  4. Reforms could be used to unite Congress

 

Answer d

Explanation:

  • Reforms would revive the political standing of constitutionalist liberals and moderates who had lost public support during the Civil Disobedience Movement.

  • Repression earlier and reforms now would convince a large section of Congressmen of the ineffectiveness of an extra-legal struggle.

  • Once Congressmen tasted power, they would be reluctant to go back to politics of sacrifice.

  • Reforms could be used to create dissensions within Congress—right wing to be placated through constitutional concessions and radical leftists to be crushed through police measures.

  • Provincial autonomy would create powerful provincial leaders who would gradually become autonomous centres of

political power.

  • Congress would thus be provincialised and the central leadership would get weakened

Hence statement d is incorrect

 

 

Q14. Consider the following statements

  1. The 1935 Act was condemned by nearly all sections and rejected by the Congress.

  2. The Hindu Mahasabha declared themselves in favour of the working of the 1935 Act

  3. The Muslim League demanded, the convening of a Constituent Assembly elected on the basis of adult franchise.

Which of the following statements is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer b

 

Explanation:

  • Nationalists’ Response

  • The 1935 Act was condemned by nearly all sections and unanimously rejected by the Congress.

  • The Hindu Mahasabha and the National Liberal Foundation, however, declared themselves in favour of the working of the 1935 Act in the central as well as at the provincial level.

  • The Congress demanded, instead, the convening of a Constituent Assembly elected on the basis of adult franchise to frame a constitution for independent India. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Q15. Consider the following statements

  1. Elections to provincial assemblies and central assembly were held in 1937

  2. Muslim League won majority in central assembly

  3. Congress won majority of provincial assemblies

Which of the following statements is/are incorrect

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer b

Explanation:

  • In early 1937, elections to provincial assemblies were announced and once again the debate on the future strategy to be adopted by the nationalists began. Hence 1 is incorrect

  • In the elections to the Central Legislative Assembly held in November 1934, the Congress captured 45 out of 75 seats reserved for Indians. Hence 2 is incorrect

  • Everyone in the Congress agreed that the 1935 Act was to be opposed root and branch but it was not clear how it was to be done in a period when a mass movement was not yet possible. There was full agreement that the Congress should fight these elections on the basis of a detailed political and economic programme, thus deepening the anti imperialist consciousness of the people.

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Q16.Consider the following statements wrt to the manifesto of congress in 1937

  1. Promised release of prisoners

  2. Removal of disabilities on the basis of gender and caste

  3. Reduction of rent and revenue

  4. Disallowed right to form trade unions and to strike.

Which of the above statements is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 , 3 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

 

Answer d

Explanation:

Congress Manifesto for Elections

The Congress manifesto reaffirmed

  • total rejection of the 1935 Act, and

  • promised release of prisoners,

  • removal of disabilities on the basis of gender and caste,

  • radical transformation of the agrarian system,

  • substantial reduction of rent and revenue,

  • scaling down of rural debts,

  • cheap credit and

  • right to form trade unions and to strike.

 

Q17. In February 1937, elections to the provincial assemblies were held. Consider the following statements

  1. Elections were held in twenty provinces

  2. An estimated 30.1 million persons were enfranchised

  3. Women were not given right to vote

 

Which of the following statements is/are incorrect

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer b

Explanation:

  • In February 1937, elections to the provincial assemblies were held.

  • Elections were held in eleven provinces—Madras, Central Provinces, Bihar, Orissa, United Provinces, Bombay Presidency, Assam, NWFP, Bengal, Punjab and Sindh.

  • These elections were the first in which a larger number of Indians than ever before were eligible to participate.

  • An estimated 1 million persons, including 4.25 million women, had been enfranchised (14 per cent of the total population), and 15.5 million of these, including 917,000 women, actually exercised their franchise, according to reports.

 

Hence statement 2 is only correct

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Q18. Consider the following statements with respect to the performance of congress in provincial elections

  1. Gandhi actively participated in the election meetings of congress

  2. The prestige of the Congress rose after the announcements of the results.

  3. It got a majority in all provinces, except in Bengal, Assam, Punjab, Sindh and the NWFP

Which of the following statements is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer c

Explanation:

Gandhi did not attend a single election meeting. Hence statement 1 is incorrect

Congress’ Performance

  • The Congress won 716 out of 1,161 seats it contested. (There were 1,585 seats in the legislative assemblies of the eleven provinces.)

  • It got a majority in all provinces, except in Bengal, Assam, Punjab, Sindh and the NWFP, and emerged as the largest party in Bengal, Assam and the NWFP.

  • Because of this performance, the prestige of the Congress rose and Nehru was reconciled to the dominant strategy of S-T-S.

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CHAPTER-21

Congress Rule in Provinces

Q1. Consider the following statements with respect to the work done by the Congress government in 1937

  1. Restrictions on press lifted.

  2. Restored pensions of officials associated with the CDM.

  3. Political prisoners and revolutionaries released.

Which of the above statements is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer d

Explanation:

 Work Under Congress Ministries

  • Eased curbs on civil liberties.

  • Restrictions on press lifted.

  • Political prisoners and revolutionaries released.

  • Lifted ban from several illegal organisations, books and journals.

  • Restoration of pensions of officials associated with the CDM.

 

Q2.  Consider the following statements with respect to the work done by the Congress government in 1937

  1. Laws giving emergency powers were repealed.

  2. The ministries treated militant trade union protests as law and order problems.

  3. Encouragement given to khadi through subsidies and other measures.

Which of the above statements is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer d

Explanation:

  • Laws giving emergency powers were repealed.

  • The ministries treated militant trade union protests as law and order problems.

  • Encouragement given to khadi through subsidies and other measures.

All the statements are true

Q3. Consider the following statements with respect to the work done by the Congress government in 1937

  1. Banned illegal organisations, such as the Hindustan Seva Dal and Youth Leagues

  2. Ban on books and journals was lifted.

  3. Encouragement given to khadi through subsidies and other measures.

Which of the above statements is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer c

Civil Liberties

The Congress ministries did much to ease curbs on civil liberties:

  • Laws giving emergency powers were repealed.

  • Ban on illegal organisations, such as the Hindustan Seva Dal and Youth Leagues, and on certain books and journals was lifted. Hence 1 is incorrect

  • Press restrictions were lifted.

  • Newspapers were taken out of black lists.

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Q4. Consider the following statements with respect to the work done by the Congress government in 1937

  1. Confiscated arms and arms licences were restored.

  2. Police powers were increased.

  3. CID started shadowing politicians

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer c

Explanation: Civil Liberties

The Congress ministries did much to ease curbs on civil liberties:

  • Laws giving emergency powers were repealed.

  • Ban on illegal organisations, such as the Hindustan Seva Dal and Youth Leagues, and on certain books and journals was lifted.

  • Press restrictions were lifted.

  • Newspapers were taken out of black lists.

  • Confiscated arms and arms licences were restored.

  • Police powers were curbed and the CID stopped shadowing politicians. Hence 2 and 3 are incorrect

 

Q5.Consider the following statements with respect to the work done by the Congress government in 1937

  1. Political prisoners and revolutionaries were released

  2. In Bombay lands confiscated by the government during the Civil Disobedience Movement were used for social welfare.

  3. CID stopped shadowing politicians

Which of the above statements is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 3  only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer a

 

Explanation:

Civil Liberties

The Congress ministries did much to ease curbs on civil liberties:

  • Laws giving emergency powers were repealed.

  • Ban on illegal organisations, such as the Hindustan Seva Dal and Youth Leagues, and on certain books and journals was lifted.

  • Press restrictions were lifted.

  • Newspapers were taken out of black lists.

  • Confiscated arms and arms licences were restored.

  • Police powers were curbed and the CID stopped shadowing politicians. Hence 2 and 3 are incorrect

  • Political prisoners and revolutionaries were released, and deportation and internment orders were revoked.

  • In Bombay lands confiscated by the government during the Civil Disobedience Movement were restored. Hence 2 is incorrect

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Q6. Which of  the following were blemishes in the performance of the Congress ministries

  1. Yusuf Maherally, a socialist, was arrested by the Madras government

  2. S. Batliwala, a socialist, was arrested by the Madras government

  3. M. Munshi, the Bombay home minister, used the CID against communists and leftists

 

Which of the above statements is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 3  only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer d

 

  • There were certain blemishes in the performance of the Congress ministries regarding civil liberties.

  • Yusuf Maherally, a socialist, was arrested by the Madras government for inflammatory speeches and later released.

  • S. Batliwala, a socialist, was arrested by the Madras government for seditious speech and given a six months’ sentence.

  • Then, K.M. Munshi, the Bombay home minister, used the CID against communists and leftists.

 

Q7. Consider the following statements with respect to the agrarian reforms done by the Congress government in 1937

  1. It abolished Zamindari system

  2. Agriculture was a transferred subject and hence Congress had adequate power to confront Zamindars.

Which of the above statements is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. None

Answer d

Explanation:

There were certain basic constraints due to which the Congress ministries could not undertake a complete overhaul of the agrarian structure by completely abolishing zamindari.

These constraints were:

(i) The ministries did not have adequate powers.

 (ii) There were inadequate financial resources as a lion’s share was appropriated by the Government of India

Hence both the statements are incorrect

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Q8. Consider the following statements with respect to the agrarian reforms done by the Congress government in 1937

Assertion (A): Congress ministries could not undertake a complete overhaul of the agrarian structure by completely abolishing zamindari.

Reason (R):The Legislative Council’s support was necessary for  legislations.

In the context of the above, which of these is correct?

  1. a) A is correct, and R is an appropriate explanation of A.

  2. b) A is correct, but R is not an appropriate explanation of A.

  3. c) A is correct, but R is incorrect.

  4. d) Both A and R are incorrect.

Answer a

Explanation:

There were certain basic constraints due to which the Congress ministries could not undertake a complete overhaul of the agrarian structure by completely abolishing zamindari.

These constraints were:

(i) The ministries did not have adequate powers.

 (ii) There were inadequate financial resources as a lion’s share was appropriated by the Government of India.

(iii) Strategy of class adjustments was another hurdle since zamindars, etc., had to be conciliated and neutralised.

(iv) There was constraint of time since the logic of congress politics was confrontation and not cooperation with colonialism.

(v) War clouds had started hovering around 1938.

(vi) The reactionary second chamber (Legislative Council) dominated by landlords, moneylenders and capitalists in United Provinces, Bihar, Bombay, Madras and Assam had to be conciliated as its support was necessary for legislations

Hence both the statements are correct as well as explanation.

Q9.Consider the following statements with respect to the agrarian reforms done by the Congress government in 1937

  1. The Congress ministries legislated laws relating to land reforms, debt relief, forest grazing fee, arrears of rent, land tenures, etc.

  2. Agricultural labourers did not benefit much from these measures.

Which of the above statements is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. None

Answer c

Explanation:

 In spite of these constraints, the Congress ministries managed to legislate a number of laws relating to land reforms, debt relief, forest grazing fee, arrears of rent, land tenures, etc.

But most of these benefits went to statutory and occupancy tenants while sub-tenants did not gain much. Agricultural labourers did not benefit as they had not been mobilised.

Hence both the statements are correct

 

Q10. Consider the following statements with respect to the Labour reforms done by the Congress government in 1937

  1. The basic approach was to advance workers’ interests while promoting industrial peace.

  2. It advocated compulsory arbitration prior to striking before the established conciliation machinery.

Which of the above statements is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. None

Answer c

Explanation:

Attitude Towards Labour

  • The basic approach was to advance workers’ interests while promoting industrial peace.

  • This was sought to be achieved by reducing strikes as far as possible and by advocating compulsory arbitration prior to striking before the established conciliation machinery.

  • Goodwill was sought to be create d between labour and capital with mediation of ministries, while at the same time efforts were made to improve workers’ condition and secure wage increases for them.

Both the statements are correct

 

Q11.Consider the following statements with respect to the Social  reforms done by the Congress government in 1937

  1. Prohibition was imposed all over the country.

  2. Indigenous enterprises were encouraged.

Which of the above statements is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. None

Answer b

Explanation:

Social Welfare Reforms

These included the following—

  • Prohibition imposed in certain areas.

  • Measures for welfare of Harijans taken—temple entry, use of public facilities, scholarships, an increase in their numbers in government service and police, etc.

  • Attention given to primary, technical and higher education and to public health and sanitation.

  • Encouragement given to khadi through subsidies and other measures.

  • Prison reforms undertaken.

  • Encouragement given to indigenous enterprises

Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

Q12. Consider the following statements with respect to the Social  reforms done by the Congress government in 1937

  1. Measures for welfare of Harijans taken

  2. There was increase in number of Harijans in government service and police, etc.

Which of the above statements is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. None

 

Answer c

Explanation:

Social Welfare Reforms

  • Prohibition imposed in certain areas.

  • Measures for welfare of Harijans taken—temple entry, use of public facilities, scholarships, an increase in their numbers in government service and police, etc.

  • Attention given to primary, technical and higher education and to public health and sanitation.

  • Encouragement given to khadi through subsidies and other measures.

  • Prison reforms undertaken.

  • Encouragement given to indigenous enterprises.

  • Efforts taken to develop planning through National Planning Committee set up under Congress president Subhash Bose in 1938.

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Q14.Consider the following statements regards to congress rule in 1937

  1. Setting up of Congress police stations and panchayats,

  2. Launching of mass literacy campaigns

  3. Develop planning through National Planning Committee

Which of the above statements is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 3  only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer d

Explanation:

Efforts taken to develop planning through National Planning Committee set up under Congress president Subhash Bose in 1938.

Extra-Parliamentary Mass Activity of Congress

  • launching of mass literacy campaigns,

  • setting up of Congress police stations and panchayats,

  • Congress Grievance Committees presenting mass petitions to government, and

  • states peoples’ movements.

 

Q15.Which of the following was an effect of the congress rule in the provinces

  1. The ministries were able to notable to control communal riots.

  2. The morale of the bureaucracy was high.

  3. Administrative work by Indians weakened the myth that Indians were not fit to rule.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 3  only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

 

Answer b

Explanation:

Though by 1939 internal strifes, opportunism and hunger for power had started surfacing among Congressmen, yet they were able to utilise council work to their advantage to a great extent. The 28-month Congress rule was also significant for the following reasons.

  • The contention that Indian self-government was necessary for radical social transformation got confirmed.

  • Congressmen demonstrated that a movement could use state power to further its ends without being co-opted.

  • The ministries were able to control communal riots. Hence 1 is incorrect

  • The morale of the bureaucracy came down. Hence 2 is incorrect

  • Council work helped neutralise many erstwhile hostile elements (landlords, etc).

  • People were able to perceive the shape of things to come if independence was won.

  • Administrative work by Indians further weakened the myth that Indians were not fit to rule. Hence 3 is correct

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Q16.Which of the following statements is correct with respect to Pirpur Committee

  1. It was established by the congress in 1938

  2. It prepared a detailed report on the atrocities committed by the Muslim League ministries.

Which of the above statements is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. None

Answer d

Explanation: 

  • In the meanwhile, the All India Muslim League, annoyed with the Congress for not sharing power with them established the Pirpur Committee in 1938

  • to prepare a detailed report on the atrocities supposedly committed by the Congress ministries.

  • In its report the committee charged the Congress with interference in the religious rites, suppression of Urdu in favour of Hindi, denial of proper representation and of the oppression of Muslims in the economic sphere.

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CHAPTER-22

Nationalist Response in the Wake of World War II

Q1.Consider the following statements 

  1. S.C. Bose contended for the presidentship of Congress and defeated Pattabhi Sitaramaiya

  2. S.C. Bose was declared unfit for any post in Congress for the next 3 years.

Which of the above statements are correct about Tripuri Session of INC

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. a) 1 only

  2. b) 2 only

  3. c) Both 1 and 2

  4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer c

Tripuri Crisis of the Indian National Congress (INC) relates to Contentions related to leadership of the INC

Explanation:

  • In 1939, S.C. Bose contended for the presidentship of Congress and he defeated Pattabhi Sitaramaiya, candidate of Gandhi. Gandhi declared the defeat of Pattabhi as his own defeat.

  • Hence statement 1 is correct

  • Ultimately in April 1939, S.C. Bose resigned and Dr. Rajendra Prasad was made new President.

  • In May 1939, S.C. Bose founded a new party ‘Forward Block’ at Makur, Unnao.

  • In August 1939, S.C. Bose was removed from the post of President of All India

  • Hence statement 2 is correct

  • Congress committee and Bengal Congress Committee and was declared unfit for any post in Congress for the next 3 years.

Q2. Consider the following statements wrt  Subash Chandra Bose

  1. His main area of work lay in the organisation of the youth and promoting the trade union movement.

  2. Subhash Bose did agree with Gandhi on many aspects of the struggle for freedom.

  3. He along with Jawaharlal Nehru opposed the Motilal Nehru Report

Which of the above statements is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

 

Answer c

Explanation:  

  • Subhash Chandra Bose was president of the Bengal Provincial Congress Committee.

  • His main area of work lay in the organisation of the youth and promoting the trade union movement.

  • Subhash Bose did not agree with Gandhi and other leaders of the Congress on many aspects of the struggle for freedom. Hence 2 is incorrect

  • He along with Jawaharlal Nehru opposed the Motilal Nehru Report which spoke for dominion status for India

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Q3.Consider the following statements wrt  Subash Chandra Bose

  1. He announced the formation of the Independence League.

  2. He was against the resolution that the Congress goal would be ‘Poorna Swaraj’

  3. He did not take part in the Salt Satyagraha Movement in 1930

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

 

Answer c

Explanation:

  • Bose was all for full independence;

  • he also announced the formation of the Independence League.

  • When the Lahore Congress session under Jawaharlal Nehru’s presidency adopted a resolution that the Congress goal would be ‘Poorna Swaraj’, Bose fully endorsed the decision. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

  • He was again fully active in the Salt Satyagraha Movement in 1930, forcing the government to arrest him. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

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Q4.Consider the following statements

  1. Bose was unanimously elected president of the Haripura session.

  2. Congress adopted a resolution to support Prajamandals in Princely states

Which of the above statements are correct about Haripura Session of INC

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. a) 1 only

  2. b) 2 only

  3. c) Both 1 and 2

  4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer c

Explanation:

 Haripura

  • At the Congress meeting in Haripura, Gujarat, in February 1938, Bose was unanimously elected president of the session.

  • He was firm in his belief that the Congress ministries in the provinces had immense revolutionary potential, as he said in his presidential address.

  • Bose also talked of economic development of the country through planning and was instrumental in setting up a National Planning Committee later.

  • The session adopted a resolution that the Congress would give moral support to those who were agitating against the governance in the princely states.

  • In the following months, the international situation was highly disturbed; there were clear signs that Europe was going to be embroiled in war.

Hence both statements are correct.

 

Q5. Consider the following statements

  1. SC Bose won against P. Sitaramaiyyah for president post of INC in 1939.

  2. Bose was debarred from holding any elective office in the Congress when he refused to resign from Presidentship.

  3. Sitaramaiyyah became the president after Bose’s resignation.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

 

Answer: c

Explanation: In the circumstances, Bose saw no option but to resign. He resigned from the president’s post in April 1939. This led to the election of Rajendra Prasad as president of the Congress. The crisis in the Congress had been overcome for the present.

In May, Bose and his followers formed the Forward Bloc (at Makur, Unnao) as a new party within the Congress.

But when he gave a call for an all-India protest on July 9 against an AICC resolution, the Congress Working Committee took disciplinary action against Bose:

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Q6.Consider the following statements

  1. Bose believed that Gandhi’s ideology of non-violence would be inadequate for securing India’s independence.

  2. To his mind, violent resistance alone could oust the alien imperialist rule from India.

  3. He considered the Gandhian civil disobedience campaign as an effective means of only paralysing the administration.

Which of the above statements is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer d

Explanation:

  • Bose believed that Gandhi’s strategy based on

  • the ideology of non-violence would be inadequate for securing India’s independence.

  • To his mind, violent resistance alone could oust the alien imperialist rule from India.

  • He considered the Gandhian civil disobedience campaign as an effective means of paralysing the administration, but did not think it to be efficacious unless accompanied by a movement aimed at total revolution that was prepared, if necessary, to use violence.

 

Q7. Consider the following statements.

Assertion (A): Subhas Bose was deeply attracted to military discipline

Reason (R): He received basic training in the University Unit of the India Defence Force.

In the context of the above, which of these is correct?

  1. a) A is correct, and R is an appropriate explanation of A.

  2. b) A is correct, but R is not an appropriate explanation of A.

  3. c) A is correct, but R is incorrect.

  4. d) Both A and R are incorrect.

Answer a

Explanation:

  • Subhas Bose was deeply attracted to military discipline and was thankful for the basic training he received in the University Unit of the India Defence Force.

  • He volunteered to form a guard of honour during the ceremonial function at the Calcutta session of the Congress in 1930.

  • And it was done on a massive and grand scale.

  • Bose, in full dress uniform, reviewed his ‘troops’. Gandhi and most of his supporters were uneasy with this display

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Q8.Consider the following statements  wrt to Gandhi’s view on Millitary

  1. He was not against defensive war.

  2. He listed economic inequality and exploitation as causes of war.

  3. He believed It brutalises men of naturally gentle nature.

Which of the above statements is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer d

  • Gandhi was against the military on the whole.

  • His Ramrajya, being built on the concept of truth and non violence and self-regulation would be a perfect place and would not require either police or grandiose armies.

  • All effort must be made to arrive at peace rather than go to war. War, said Gandhi, “demoralises those who are trained for it.

  • It brutalises men of naturally gentle nature.” The main causes of war, according to Gandhi, were racialism, imperialism and fascism (in the context of the Second World War).

  • He also listed economic inequality and exploitation as additional causes of war and instability in the international system.

  • If these were eradicated, there need not be any war.

  • He was not against defensive war: if the innocent were attacked, there was no option but to defend oneself.

  • So, of course, the military was required for self-defence, but it was to be on minimal scale.

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Q9. Consider the following statements  wrt to Gandhi’s view

  1. He developed the idea of village Sarvodaya.

  2. Gandhi dismissed capitalism but accepted Western socialism

  3. What he wanted was the revival of ancient village communities

Which of the above statements is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer a

 Explanation:

  • Gandhi’s concept of Swaraj had its own brand of economic vision.

  • He wanted a decentralised economy without state control.

  • Gandhi dismissed both capitalism and Western socialism—the former for its exploitative excesses and the latter for its connection to industrialisation. Hence 2 is incorrect

  • Both, he believed, led human beings to crave for luxury and self-indulgence. Gandhi wanted people to get rid of greed and make do with just the bare necessities of life.

  • He developed the idea of village Sarvodaya.

  • He advocated a “back to the roots” vision when production was “simultaneous with consumption and distribution and the vicious circle of money economy was absent.

  • Production was for immediate use and not for distant markets.” What he wanted was the revival of ancient village communities in which agriculture prospered, industry was decentralised business was through small scale cooperative organisations.

Q10. Consider the following statements  wrt to Gandhi’s view

  1. Gandhi believed that India’s salvation lay in unlearning what had been learnt;

  2. Gandhi wanted the railways, telegraphs, hospitals, lawyers, doctors, and other modern trappings to be discarded,

  3. What he wanted was the revival of ancient village communities

Which of the above statements is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer d

Explanation:

  • He also wanted the participation of people at all levels.

  • In a letter he wrote to Henry Polak in 1909, Gandhi expressed the view that India’s salvation lay in unlearning what had been learnt;

  • he wanted the railways, telegraphs, hospitals, lawyers, doctors, and other modern trappings to be discarded, and the so-called upper classes to learn to live the simple life of the peasant

Q11. Consider the following statements

  1. Bose was all in favour of modernisation which was necessarily to be brought about by industrialization as against the view of Gandhi.

  2. Gandhi believed that India’s downfall in the political and material sphere is due to inordinate belief in fate and the supernatural.

  3. Bose believed that India’s downfall was due to indifference to modern scientific developments.

Which of the above statements is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer a

  • Bose considered economic freedom to be the essence of social and political freedom.

  • He was all in favour of modernisation which was necessarily to be brought about by industrialisation.

  • He believed that India’s downfall in the political and material sphere had been brought about by the people’s inordinate belief in fate and the supernatural accompanied by an indifference to modern scientific developments, especially in the field of war weapons.

  • He felt the backward agriculture had to be modernised.

  • The labour that was ousted from the agricultural sector as a result of such modernisation could be helped only with the development of industry.

 

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Q12.Consider the following statements about Haripura session

  1. Gandhi spoke about the need to set up a planning commission to advise the national government.

  2. He also spoke about abolition of landlordism and liquidation of agricultural indebtedness.

Which of the above statements are correct about Haripura Session of INC

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. a) 1 only

  2. b) 2 only

  3. c) Both 1 and 2

  4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer b

Explanation:

  • In his speech at the Haripura Congress session, Bose expressed his opinion that, for India to progress, a comprehensive scheme of industrial development under stateownership and state-control would be indispensable. Hence 1 is incorrect

  • And he spoke about the need to set up a planning commission to advise the national government.

  • He also spoke about abolition of landlordism and liquidation of agricultural indebtedness.

  • He was much impressed by the success attained by the Soviet Union in economic development through rapid industrialisation within a short period of time.

 

Q13. Consider the following statements

  1. Bose demanded that Hindu prisoners be given the right to do Durga Puja

  2. Bose motivated Indians towards freedom struggle through Hindu symbolisms

  3. Bose called upon the women to participate in the liberation struggle, invoking the imagery of Durga

Which of the above statements is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer d

Explanation:

  • He was also inspired by the India of the past as reinterpreted by thinkers.

  • According to many scholars, Hindu spirituality formed the essential part of his political and social thought throughout his adult life.

  • However, he was free of bigotry or orthodoxy. He was for total non-discrimination on the basis of religion and in context he took up the Hindus’ cause when he demanded that Hindu prisoners be given the right to do Durga Puja just as Muslims and Christians were allowed to celebrate their festivals.

  • Bose motivated Indians towards freedom struggle through Hindu symbolisms as appropriate for the audience.

  • On December 9, 1930, he called upon the women to participate in the liberation struggle, invoking the imagery of Durga, a form of Shakti, ready to vanquish evil.

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Q14. Consider the following statements

  1. Gandhi was instrumental in bringing women out of their homes to take part in the struggle for freedom.

  2. Gandhi was involved bringing women out of the purdah

  3. Gandhi Advocated for the possibility of being jailed and thus being separated from their families.

Which of the above statements is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer d

Explanation:

Gandhi was instrumental in bringing women out of their homes to take part in the struggle for freedom. It was, as scholars point out, the most radical of his ideas. It involved bringing women out of the purdah – a system that was prevalent among Hindus as well as Muslims of the time. It involved the possibility of being jailed and thus being separated from their families. These were steps that were revolutionary for those times.

Apart from bringing women into the struggle for swaraj, he vehemently opposed various social ills affecting women like child marriage, the dowry system and female infanticide, and the treatment of widows.

 

Q15. Arrange the following chronologically

  1. Ramgarh session of the Congress

  2. Pakistan Resolution Lahore

  3. Congress resignation from Government

  4. August Offer

Select the correct answer from options given below

  1. 1-2-3-4

  2. 2-1-4-3

  3. 3-1-2-4

  4. 3-2-1-4

Answer c

Explanation:

  • The Ramgarh session of the Congress was held in March 1940 with Maulana Abul Kalam Azad in the president’s chair.

  • Pakistan Resolution—Lahore (March 1940) The Muslim League passed a resolution calling for “grouping of geographically contiguous areas where Muslims are in majority (North-West, East) into independent states in which constituent units shall be autonomous and sovereign and adequate safeguards to Muslims where they are in minority”.

  • The government came up with its own offer to get the cooperation of India in the war effort. Linlithgow announced the August Offer (August 1940)

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CHAPTER-23

Quit India Movement, Demand for Pakistan, and the INA

Q1. Consider the following statements wrt to Quit India Movement

  1. Quit India Resolution was ratified at the Congress meeting at Gowalia Tank, Bombay, on August 8, 1942.

  2. It demanded an immediate end to British rule in India.

  3. Sardar Patel was named the leader of the struggle.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

 

Answer d

Explanation:

The Quit India Resolution was ratified at the Congress meeting at Gowalia Tank, Bombay, on August 8, 1942. The meeting also resolved to

  • demand an immediate end to British rule in India.

  • declare commitment of free India to defend itself against all types of Fascism and imperialism.

  • form a provisional Government of India after British withdrawal.

  • sanction a civil disobedience movement against British rule.

Gandhi was named the leader of the struggle.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

 

 

Q2.Consider the following statements about instructions by Gandhi to various sections of society

People                                                                                                         Instruction

1.Government servants                                                 a)Resign and declare your allegiance to the Congress.

  1. Soldiers b)Do not leave the Army but do not fire on compatriots.

 3.Students                                                                        c)All students should leave studies.

  1. Princely states’ people d)Support the ruler only if he is anti-government

 

Select the correct code

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

Answer c

Explanation:

Gandhi’s special instructions were spelt out at the Gowalia Tank meeting but not actually issued. They were directed at various sections of society.

  • Government servants: Do not resign but declare your allegiance to the Congress.

  • Soldiers: Do not leave the Army but do not fire on compatriots.

  • Students: If confident, leave studies.

  • Peasants: If zamindars are anti-government, pay mutually agreed rent, and if zamindars are pro-government, do not pay rent.

  • Princes: Support the masses and accept sovereignty of your people.

  • Princely states’ people: Support the ruler only if he is anti-government and declare yourselves to be a part of the Indian nation.

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Q3.Consider the following statemenst

  1. On August 9, 1942 the top leaders of the Congress were arrested and taken to Tihar Jail.

  2. The Congress Working Committee, and the Provincial Congress Committees were declared unlawful associations.

  3. Aruna Asaf Ali, presided over the Congress committee session on August 9, and hoisted the flag.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

Answer b

Explanation:

  • In the early hours of August 9, 1942, in a single sweep, all the top leaders of the Congress were arrested and taken to unknown destinations. Hence 1 is incorrect

  • The Congress Working Committee, the All India Congress Committee and the Provincial Congress Committees were declared unlawful associations under the Criminal Law Amendment Act of 1908.

  • The assembly of public meetings was prohibited under rule 56 of the Defence of India Rules. The removal of established leaders left the younger and militant elements to their own initiative.

  • With the major leaders out of the picture, young Aruna Asaf Ali,  till then relatively unknown, presided over the Congress committee session on August 9, and hoisted the flag.

 

Q4. Under ground radio during QIM  in Bombay was started  by

(a) Achyut Patwardhan

(b) Chotubhai pattnaik

(c) Usha Mehta

(d) Aruna Asaf Ali

 

Answer c

Explanation:

The main personalities taking up underground activity were Rammanohar Lohia, Jayaprakash Narayan, Aruna Asaf Ali, Usha Mehta, Biju Patnaik, Chhotubhai Puranik, Achyut Patwardhan, Sucheta Kripalani and R.P. Goenka. Usha Mehta started an underground radio in Bombay.

 

Q5. Consider the following statements

  1. Communists did not join QIM

  2. Muslim League supported QIM

  3. Princely states participation was very high

Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

Answer b

Explanation:

  • The Communists did not join the movement; in the wake of Russia (where the communists were in power) being attacked by Nazi Germany, the communists began to support the British war against Germany and the ‘Imperialist War’ became the ‘People’s War’.

  • The Muslim League opposed the movement, fearing that if the British left India at that time, the minorities would be oppressed by the Hindus.

  • The Hindu Mahasabha boycotted the movement.

  • The Princely states showed a low-key response.

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Q6. Consider the following  statements with respect to QIM

  1. Even when left without leaders, there was no violence during QIM.

  2. Upper classes and the bureaucracy were the backbone of the movement.

  3. Loyalty to government suffered considerable erosion during QIM

Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

Answer d

Explanation:

  • Left without leaders, there was no restraint and violence became common. 1 is incorrect

  • Main storm centres of the movement were in eastern United Provinces, Bihar, Midnapore, Maharashtra, Karnataka.

  • Students, workers and peasants were the backbone of the movement while the upper classes and the bureaucracy remained largely loyal. 2 is incorrect

  • Loyalty to government suffered considerable erosion. This also showed how deep nationalism had reached.

  • The movement established the truth that it was no longer possible to rule India without the wishes of Indians.

 

Q7. Consider the following statemenst with respect to causeof BENGAL FAMINE 1943

  1. The need to feed a vast Army diverted foodstuffs.

  2. Rice exports to Burma and South-East Asia had been stopped.

  3. The famine got aggravated by gross mismanagement and deliberate profiteering

 

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

Answer a

Explanation:

The fundamental causes of the famine were as follows.

1.The need to feed a vast Army diverted foodstuffs.

  1. Rice imports from Burma and South-East Asia had been stopped. Hence 2 is incorrect

  2. The famine got aggravated by gross mismanagement and deliberate profiteering; rationing methods were belated and were confined to big cities.

 

Q8. Consider the following statements with respect to Rajagoplachari Formula

  1. Muslim League to endorse Congress demand for independence and cooperate with Congress in forming a provisional government at centre.

  2. Muslim majority areas in the North-West and North-East India to decide by a plebiscite.

  3. Jinnah wanted only the Muslims of North-West and North-East to vote in the plebiscite.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c)1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

Answer  c

Explanation:

The main points in the CR Plan were:

  • Muslim League to endorse Congress demand for independence.

  • League to cooperate with Congress in forming a provisional government at centre.

  • After the end of the war, the entire population of Muslim majority areas in the North-West and North-East India to decide by a plebiscite, whether or not to form a separate sovereign state.

  • In case of acceptance of partition, agreement to be made jointly for safeguarding defence, commerce,communications, etc.

  • The above terms to be operative only if England transferred full powers to India.

Objections

Jinnah wanted the Congress to accept the two-nation theory. He wanted only the Muslims of North-West and North-East to vote in the plebiscite and not the entire population. He also opposed the idea of a common centre

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Q9. Consider the following statements with respect to Desai Liaqat Pact

  1. It is a draft proposal for the formation of an interim government at the centre

  2. It Gave an equal number of persons nominated by the Congress and the League in the central legislature.

  3. 50% reserved seats for minorities.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c)1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

Answer  d

Explaantion:

Both of them came up with the draft proposal for the formation of an interim government at the centre, consisting of—

  • an equal number of persons nominated by the Congress and the League in the central legislature.

  • 20% reserved seats for minorities.Hence 3 is incorrect

No settlement could be reached between the Congress and the League on these lines, but the fact that a sort of parity between the Congress and the League was decided upon had far-reaching consequences.

 

 

Q10.Consider the following statemenst

  1. ‘Freedom Army’ was formed in Germany which consisted of all the prisoners of war of Indian origin captured by Germany and Italy.

  2. Bose gave the famous slogan, ‘Jai Hind’ from the Free India Centre, Singapore.

  3. Bose to enthused Indians began regular broadcasts from Berlin radio.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c)1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

Answer  a

Explanation:

  • With the help of Hitler, the ‘Freedom Army’ (Mukti Sena) was formed which consisted of all the prisoners of war of Indian origin captured by Germany and Italy. Dresden, Germany was made the office of the Freedom Army.

  • Bose came to be called ‘Netaji’ by the people of Germany.

  • He gave the famous slogan, ‘Jai Hind’ from the Free India Centre, Hence 2 is incorrect

  • He began regular broadcasts from Berlin radio in January 1942, which enthused Indians.

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CHAPTER-24

Post-War National Scenario

1.Consider the following statements:

  1. Lord Mountbatten was the Viceroy when Shimla Conference took place.

  2. Indian Navy Revolt (RIN) took place when the sailors in the Navy at Bombay rose against the Government.

3.RIN mutiny was supported by Muslim League and Congress

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

 

Answer c

Statement 1 is incorrect: Wavell Plan (Shimla Conference—June 1945) An all-Indian executive council except the governor-general and commander-in-chief.

Statement 2 is correct: The Royal Indian Navy revolt (also called the Royal Indian Navy mutiny or Bombay mutiny) encompasses a total strike and subsequent revolt by Indian sailors of the Royal Indian Navy on board ship and shore establishments at Bombay harbour on 18 February 1946.

From the initial flashpoint in Bombay, the revolt spread and found support throughout British India, from Karachi to Calcutta, and ultimately came to involve over 20,000 sailors in 78 ships and shore establishments

Statement 3 is incorrect:  The mutiny was repressed with force by British troops and Royal Navy warships. Total casualties were 8 dead and 33 wounded. Only the Communist Party supported the strikers; the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League condemned it.

 

 

Q2. Consider the following statements

  1. After the release of Congress leaders in June 1945, they found people were demoralized.

  2. People’s expectations were heightened by the release of their leaders and they were impatient to do something

Which of the above statements is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. None

 

Answer b

Explanation:

  • When the government lifted the ban on the Congress and released the Congress leaders in June 1945, they expected to find a demoralised people. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

  • Instead, they found tumultuous crowds impatient to do something. Popular energy resurfaced after three years of repression.

  • People’s expectations were heightened by the release of their leaders. The Wavell Plan backed by the Conservative government in Britain failed to break the constitutional deadlock.

 

 

Q3. Consider the following statements

  1. In July 1945, Conservative Party formed the government in Britain.

  2. In August 1945, elections only to central assemblies was announced.

  3. In September 1945, it was announced that a constituent assembly would be convened after the elections.

Which of the above statements  is/are incorrect

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 and 2 only

  2. 2 and 3 only

  3. 1 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer a

Explanation:

  • In July 1945, Labour Party formed the government in Britain. Clement Attlee took over as the new prime minister and Pethick Lawrence as the new secretary of state for India. Hence statement is incorrect

  • In August 1945, elections to central and provincial assemblies were announced. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

  • In September 1945, it was announced that a constituent assembly would be convened after the elections and that the government was working according to the spirit of the Cripps Offer.

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Q4.Which of the following is/are correct explanation for Change in Government’s Attitude after the war

  1. Change in balance of global power

  2. A wave of capitalist radical governments throughout Europe

  3. Anti-imperialist wave in South-East Asia

Which of the above statements  is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 and 3 only

  2. 2 and 3 only

  3. 1 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3

 

Answer a

Explanation:

  1. The end of the War resulted in a change in balance of global power—the UK was no more a big power while the USA and USSR emerged as superpowers, both of which favoured freedom for India.

  2. The new Labour government was more sympathetic to Indian demands.

  3. Throughout Europe, there was a wave of socialistradical governments.

4.There was an anti-imperialist wave in South-East Asia—in Vietnam and Indonesia—resisting efforts to replant French and Dutch rule there.

 

 

Q5.Consider the following statements with respect to the elections of 1945

  1. It sought to mobilise the Indians against the British

  2. The election campaign had a boosting effect on the morale of the services.

  3. The people in government services were happy of the arrival of Congress government

Which of the above statements  is/are incorrect

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 and 2 only

  2. 2 and 3 only

  3. 1 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3

 

Answer b

Explanation:

  • The most significant feature of the election campaign was that it sought to mobilise the Indians against the British; it did not just appeal to the people for votes. Hence statement 1 is correct

  • The election campaign expressed the nationalist sentiments against the state repression of the 1942 Quit India upsurge.

  • This was done by glorifying martyrs and condemning officials. The brave resistance of the leaderless people was lauded; martyrs’ memorials were set up; relief funds were collected for sufferers; the officials responsible for causing pain were condemned; and promises of enquiry and threats of punishment to guilty officials were spelt out.

  • The government failed to check such speeches. This had a devastating effect on the morale of the services.

  • The prospect of the return of Congress ministries, especially in those provinces where repression had been most brutal, further heightened the fears of those in government services.

  • A ‘gentleman’s agreement’ with the Congress seemed necessary to the government.

  • Hence statements 2 and 3 are incorrect

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Q6. Consider the following statements with respect to INA trials

  1. First INA trial was held at the India Gate in Delhi in November 1945.

  2. Prem Kumar Sehgal, Shah Nawaz Khan, and Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon were the first once to face the trial.

Which of the above statements is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. None

Answer b

Explanation:

  • Mass pressure against the trial of INA POWs, sometimes described as “an edge of a volcano”, brought about a decisive shift in the government’s policy.

  • The British had initially decided to hold public trials of several hundreds of INA prisoners besides dismissing them from service and detaining without trial around 7,000 of them.

  • They compounded the folly by holding the first trial at the Red Fort in Delhi in November 1945 and putting on dock together a Hindu, Prem Kumar Sehgal, a Muslim, Shah Nawaz Khan, and a Sikh, Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon.

  • Hence statement 1 is incorrect but 2 is correct

 

Q7. Consider the following statements with respect to INA trials

  1. Congress supported the INA Prisoners

  2. Defence of INA prisoners in the court was organised by members of Congress.

 

Which of the above statements is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. None

Answer c

Explanation:

Congress Support for INA Prisoners

  • At the first post-War Congress session in September 1945 at Bombay, a strong resolution was adopted declaring Congress support for the INA cause.

  • Defence of INA prisoners in the court was organized by Bhulabhai Desai, Tej Bahadur Sapru, Kailash Nath Katju, Jawaharlal Nehru and Asaf Ali.

  • INA Relief and Enquiry Committee distributed small sums of money and food, and helped arrange employment for the affected.

  • Fund collection was organized

Hence both statements is/are correct

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Q8.Which of the following is/are correct explanation for Change in Government’s Attitude after the war

  1. British soldiers were weary and tired after the war

  2. British economy was weak

  3. Fear of Congress revolt.

Which of the above statements  is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 and 3 only

  2. 2 and 3 only

  3. 1 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3

 

Answer d

Explanation: Why a Change in Government’s Attitude

  1. The end of the War resulted in a change in balance of global power—the UK was no more a big power while the USA and USSR emerged as superpowers, both of which favoured freedom for India.

  2. The new Labour government was more sympathetic to Indian demands.

  3. Throughout Europe, there was a wave of socialistradical governments.

  4. 4. British soldiers were weary and tired and the British economy lay shattered. (By 1945 the British government in London owed India £1.2 billion and was being drained by the US Lend-Lease agreement, which was finally paid off only in 2006.)

  5. There was an anti-imperialist wave in South-East Asia—in Vietnam and Indonesia—resisting efforts to replant French and Dutch rule there.

  6. Officials feared another Congress revolt, a revival of the 1942 situation but much more dangerous because of a likely combination of attacks on communications, agrarian revolts, labour trouble, army disaffection joined by government officials and the police in the presence of INA men with some military experience.

  7. Elections were inevitable once the war ended since the last elections had been held in 1934 for the Centre and in 1937 for the provinces.

 

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Q9.Consider the following

  1. INA cause got support from Congress and Muslim league only

  2. RSS and Hindu Mahasabha were supporting British during the Trails

  3. Even the people from armed (British India) supported the cause of INA

Which of the above statements  is/are incorrect

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 and 2 only

  2. 2 and 3 only

  3. 1 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer  a

Explanation:  

  • Those who supported the INA cause in varying degrees, apart from the Congress, included the Muslim League, Communist Party, Unionists, Akalis, Justice Party, Ahrars in Rawalpindi, Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh, Hindu Mahasabha and the Sikh League.

  • Hence 1 and 2 are incorrect

  • Pro-INA sentiments surfaced in traditional bulwarks of the Raj.

  • Government employees collected funds. The loyalists—the gentlemen with titles—appealed to the government to abandon the trials for good Indo-British relations.

  • Men of the armed forces were unexpectedly sympathetic and attended meetings, received those released (often in uniforms) and contributed funds.

 

 

 

 

Q10.Arrange the following events chronologically

  1. Red fort INA trials

  2. RIN Mutiny

  3. Wavell plan

  4. Tebhaga Movement

Select the correct answer from options given below

  1. 1-2-3-4

  2. 2-1-4-3

  3. 3-1-2-4

  4. 3-2-1-4

 

Answer a

Explanation:

  • First trial at the Red Fort in Delhi in November 1945 and putting on dock together a Hindu, Prem Kumar Sehgal, a Muslim, Shah Nawaz Khan, and a Sikh, Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon.

  • February 18, 1946—in Bombay, strike by the Royal Indian Navy ratings.

  • In May 1945 Wavell visited London and discussed his ideas with the British Government. These London talks resulted in the formulation of a definite plan of action which was officially made public simultaneously on 14 June 1945

  • The Tebhaga movement was significant peasant agitation, initiated in Bengal by the Kisan Sabha in 1946–47.

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Q11. Consider the following statements

  1. Racial discrimination

  2. Hurting religious sentiments

  3. Abuse by superior officers

Which of the above was/were the cause for Mutiny in RIN

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 and 2 only

  2. 1 and 3 only

  3. 2 and 3 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer  b

Explanation:

Rebellion by Naval Ratings On February 18, 1946 some 1100 Royal Indian Navy (RIN) ratings of HMIS Talwar went on a strike to protest against

* racial discrimination (demanding equal pay for Indian and white soldiers)

* unpalatable food

* abuse by superior officers

* arrest of a rating for scrawling ‘Quit India’ on HMIS Talwar

* INA trials

* use of Indian troops in Indonesia, demanding their withdrawal.

 

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Q12. Consider the following statements

  1. The rebellious ratings hoisted the tricolor and crescent flags only on the mast of the rebel fleet.

  2. Crowds brought food to the ratings and shopkeepers too supported them.

 

Which of the above statements is/are correct about the RIN Mutiny

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. None

Answer b

Explanation:

  • The rebellious ratings hoisted the tricolour, crescent, and the hammer and sickle flags on the mast of the rebel fleet. Hence statement 1 is incorrect

  • Other ratings soon joined and they went around Bombay in lorries holding Congress flags threatening Europeans and policemen.

  • Crowds brought food to the ratings and shopkeepers invited them to take whatever they needed. Hence statement 2 is correct

Q13. Consider the following wrt to RIN Mutiny

  1. Students boycotted classes and organised hartals and processions to express sympathy with the ratings

  2. There were strikes by the Royal Indian Air Force in Bombay, Poona, Calcutta, Jessore and Ambala.

  3. Patel and Jinnah Supported the ratings and their cause.

 

Which of the above is/are true for Mutiny in RIN

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 and 2 only

  2. 1 and 3 only

  3. 2 and 3 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3

 

Answer a

Explanation:  

  • While the students boycotted classes and organised hartals and processions to express sympathy with other students and the ratings, there were sympathetic strikes in military establishments in Karachi, Madras, Visakhapatnam, Calcutta, Delhi, Cochin, Jamnagar, Andamans, Bahrain and Aden.

  • There were strikes by the Royal Indian Air Force in Bombay, Poona, Calcutta, Jessore and Ambala.

  • Patel and Jinnah persuaded the ratings to surrender on February 23 with an assurance that national parties would prevent any victimisation.

  • Hence 3 is incorrect

Q14. Consider the following statements

  1. It had a great liberating effect on the minds of people.

  2. It was seen as an event marking the end of British rule.

Which of the above was/were the impact of RIN Mutiny

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. None

 

Answer c

Explanation: The three upsurges were significant in many ways:

  • Fearless action by the masses was an expression of militancy in the popular mind.

  • Revolt in the armed forces had a great liberating effect on the minds of people.

  • The RIN revolt was seen as an event marking the end of British rule.

  • These upsurges prompted the British to extend some concessions

 

Q15.Consider the following statements

  1. Indian soldiers were withdrawn from Indo-China and Indonesia

  2. Wavell Plan was announced

  3. August offer was given to congress

Which of the above were/was the consequence of RIN Mutiny

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 only

  2. 1 and 3 only

  3. 2 and 3 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer a

Explanation: 

RIN  upsurges prompted the British to extend some concessions:

(i) On December 1, 1946, the government announced that only those INA members accused of murder or brutal treatment of fellow prisoners would be brought to trial.

(ii) Imprisonment sentences passed against the first batch were remitted in January 1947.

(iii) Indian soldiers were withdrawn from Indo-China and Indonesia by February 1947.

(iv) The decision to send a parliamentary delegation to India (November 1946) was taken.

(v) The decision to send Cabinet Mission was taken in January 1946.

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Q16. Which of the following were the limitations of Post WW II upsurges in India

  1. It was a direct and violent conflict with authority

  2. Only the more militant sections could participate.

  3. These upsurges were short-lived and were confined to a few urban centers.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 only

  2. 1 and 3 only

  3. 2 and 3 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer d

Explanation:

These upsurges were in the nature of direct and violent conflict with authority, which had obvious limitations. Only the more militant sections could participate. These upsurges were short-lived and were confined to a few urban centres while the general INA agitation reached the remotest villages.

 

Q17.Consider the following statements

  1. Congress felt that the situation would go out of its control during the RIN Mutiny

  2. Congress felt that a disciplined armed forces were vital in a free India.

  3. Communists were in support of armed violent action with the Britishers.

Which of the above statements is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 and 2 only

  2. 1 and 3 only

  3. 2 and 3 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer d

Explanation: 

The leftists claim that the Congress indifference to the revolutionary situation arose because of two considerations— that the situation would go out of its control and that a disciplined armed forces were vital in a free India.

They also claim that if the Congress leaders had not surrendered to power play, a different path to independence would have emerged.

 But actually these upsurges were an extension of earlier nationalist activity fostered by the Congress through its election campaign, its advocacy of the INA cause and highlighting of the excesses of 1942.

Hence all the statements are correct

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Q18.Which of the following were not true wrt to upsurges in India post WW II

  1. They were peaceful demonstration of national solidarity.

  2. The Congress did officially support these upsurges but condemned their tactics and timing.

  3. In Gandhi’s opinion, if they mutinied for India’s freedom, they were doubly wrong.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 and 2 only

  2. 1 and 3 only

  3. 2 and 3 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer a

Explanation:

  • These upsurges were distinguishable from the earlier activity because of their form of articulation.

  • These were violent challenges to the authority while the earlier activity was a peaceful demonstration of national solidarity.

  • The Congress did not officially support these upsurges because of their tactics and timing.

  • Negotiations had been an integral part of the Congress strategy, to be explored before a mass movement could be launched, especially when the British were seen to be preparing to leave soon.

  • In Gandhi’s opinion, the mutiny was badly advised: if they mutinied for India’s freedom, they were doubly wrong : if they had any grievances, they should have waited for the guidance of leaders.

Hence 1 and 2 are incorrect.

 

Q19. Consider the following

  1. It got more than 80 per cent of non-Muslim votes.

  2. It captured majority seats out of 102 seats in the Central Assembly

  3. In the provincial elections, Congress got a majority in most provinces except in NWFP and Assam.

Which of the above statements wrt to the performance of CONGRESS IN  election in 1945 is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 and 2 only

  2. 1 and 3 only

  3. 2 and 3 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer a

Explanation:

 Performance of the Congress

  • It got 91 per cent of non-Muslim votes.

  • It captured 57 out of 102 seats in the Central Assembly.

  • In the provincial elections, it got a majority in most provinces except in Bengal, Sindh and Punjab. The Congress majority provinces included the NWFP and Assam which were being claimed for Pakistan.

Hence 3 is incorrect

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Q20. Consider the following

  1. It got more than 80 per cent of Muslim votes.

  2. It captured majority seats out of 102 seats in the Central Assembly

  3. In the provincial elections, it got a majority in NWFP and Assam.

Which of the above statements wrt to the performance of Muslim League in election of 1945 is/are incorrect

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 and 2 only

  2. 1 and 3 only

  3. 2 and 3 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer c

Explanation: Muslim League’s Performance

  • It got 86.6 per cent of the Muslim votes.

  • It captured the 30 reserved seats in the Central Assembly.

  • In the provincial elections, it got a majority in Bengal and Sindh.

  • Unlike in 1937, now the League clearly established itself as the dominant party among Muslims.

Hence 2 and 3 are incorrect

 

Q21. Who among the following was not the member of cabinet mission  of February 1946

  1. Stafford Cripps

  2. Pathick Lawrence

  3. A V Alexander

  4. Lord Wavell

Answer d

Explanation:

  • The Attlee government announced in February 1946 the decision to send a high-powered mission of three British cabinet members (Pethick Lawrence, Secretary of State for India; Stafford Cripps, President of the Board of Trade; and A.V. Alexander, First Lord of Admiralty) to India to find out ways and means for a negotiated, peaceful transfer of power to India. (Pethick Lawrence was the chairman of the mission.)

 

 

Q22.Which of the following statements wrt to Cabinet mission of February 1946 is correct

  1. It was initiated during Prime Minister ship of Clement Atlee in Britain

  2. Sir Stafford Cripps was the chairman of the mission.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. None

Answer a

Explanation: 

  • The Attlee government announced in February 1946 the decision to send a high-powered mission of three British cabinet members (Pethick Lawrence, Secretary of State for India; Stafford Cripps, President of the Board of Trade; and A.V. Alexander, First Lord of Admiralty) to India to find out ways and means for a negotiated, peaceful transfer of power to India. (Pethick Lawrence was the chairman of the mission.)

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Q23. Consider the following statements

  1. The Congress demanded that power be transferred to one centre.

  2. The British policy in 1946 clearly reflected a preference for a united India.

  3. This was in sharp contrast to earlier declarations.

Which of the above statements are correct

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 and 2 only

  2. 1 and 3 only

  3. 2 and 3 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer d

Explanation:

  • The Congress demanded that power be transferred to one centre and that minorities’ demands be worked out in a framework ranging from autonomy to Muslim-majority provinces to self-determination or secession from the Indian Union—but, only after the British left.\

  • The British bid for a united and friendly India and an active partner in defence of the Commonwealth, because a divided India would lack in defence and would be a blot on Britain’s diplomacy. The British policy in 1946 clearly reflected a preference for a united India, in sharp contrast to earlier declarations.

  • On March 15, 1946, the Prime Minister of Britain, Clement Attlee said: “…though mindful of the rights of minorities… cannot allow a minority to place their veto on advance of the majority.” This was a far cry from the Shimla Conference where Wavell had allowed Jinnah to wreck the conference.

 

Q24. Which of the following is incorrect about the Cabinet Mission Plan

  1. It rejected the demand for a full-fledged Pakistan

  2. It recommended three-tier executive and legislature at provincial, section and union levels.

  3. It recommended  that a common centre would control defence, communication,external affairs and education.

  4. Provinces were to have full autonomy and residual powers.

 

Answer c

Explanation: A common centre would control defence, communication and external affairs. EDUCATION was not the part of centre. Rest all statements are correct

 

Q25. Consider the following statements wrt cabinet mission plan

  1. Princely states were no longer to be under paramountcy of the British government.

  2. Provinces were to have full autonomy and residual powers.

  3. A federal structure was envisaged for India.

Which of the above statements are correct

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 and 2 only

  2. 1 and 3 only

  3. 2 and 3 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answeer d

Explanation:

 A common centre would control defence, communication and external affairs. A federal structure was envisaged for India.

  • Communal questions in the central legislature were to be decided by a simple majority of both communities present and voting.

  • Provinces were to have full autonomy and residual powers.

  • Princely states were no longer to be under paramountcy of the British government. They would be free to enter into an arrangement with successor governments or the British government.

  • After the first general elections, a province was to be free to come out of a group and after 10 years, a province was to be free to call for a reconsideration of the group or the union constitution.

  • Meanwhile, an interim government was to be formed from the constituent assembly.

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Q26.Consider the following statements.

Assertion (A): British Government fixed a Date for Withdrawal from India in Attlee’s Statement of February 20, 1947

Reason (R): The government was keen to avert the developing constitutional crisis.

In the context of the above, which of these is correct?

  1. a) A is correct, and R is an appropriate explanation of A.

  2. b) A is correct, but R is not an appropriate explanation of A.

  3. c) A is correct, but R is incorrect.

  4. d) Both A and R are incorrect.

Answer a

Explanation:

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Chapter 25

Independence with Partition

 

Q1.Which of the following regarding  Attlee’s Decleration of Indian Independence  is/are incorrect

  1. The British would relinquish power only to a Central government and rejected the idea of autonomous provincial governments.

  2. Even after India’s independence, the princely states would continue to remain a part of British Empire.

  3. The British would not transfer power to Indians if the modalities of the framing of constitution are not arrived at by consensus.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. a) 1 only

b)1, 2 and 3 only

  1. c) 3 only

  2. d) None of the above

Answer  b

Explanation:

British would relinquish power either to some form of central government or in some areas to the existing provincial governments if the constituent assembly formed was not fully representative, i.e. if the Muslim majority provinces did not join. Statement 1 is incorrect

British powers and obligations with respect to them would lapse but they would not be transferred to any successor government. Statement 2 is incorrect

Clement Attlee made the historic announcement regarding the British Government’s “definite intention to take necessary steps to effect the transfer of power to responsible Indian hands by a date not later than June 1948.” It was unconditional transfer of power, so Statement 3 is incorrect

 

 

Q2.Which of the following statements is/are incorrect with regard to the India Independence Act, 1947?

  1. It proclaimed lapse of Paramountcy with effect from 15th August 1947

  2. It provided for continuation of GOI Act, 1935 till new constitutions are framed.

  3. It declared King of Britain as the Emperor of India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

 

Answer d

Explanation:

  • On July 5, 1947 the British Parliament passed the Indian Independence Act which was based on the Mountbatten Plan, and the Act got royal assent on June 18, 1947. The Act was implemented on August 15, 1947.

  • The Act provided for the creation of two independent dominions of India and Pakistan with effect from August 15, 1947.

  • Each dominion was to have a governor-general to be responsible for the effective operation of the Act. The constituent assembly of the each new dominion was to exercise the powers of the legislature of that dominion, and the existing Central Legislative Assembly and the Council of States were to be automatically dissolved.

  • It proclaimed lapse of Paramountcy with effect from 15th August 1947

  • For the transitional period, i.e., till a new constitution was adopted by each dominion, the governments of the two dominions were to be carried on in accordance with the Government of India Act, 1935.

  • As per the provisions of the Indian Independence Act, 1947, Pakistan became independent on August 14 while India got its freedom on August 15, 1947.

  • A. Jinnah became the first Governor-General of Pakistan. India, however, decided to request Lord Mountbatten to continue as the Governor-General of India.

Q3. Which of the following regarding  Attlee’s Decleration of Indian Independence  is/are incorrect

  1. Mountbatten would replace Wavell as the viceroy.

  2. The statement contained clear hints of partition and even Balkanization of the country

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. None

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Answer d

Explanation:

  • A deadline of June 30, 1948 was fixed for transfer of power even if the Indian politicians had not agreed by that time on the constitution.

  • The British would relinquish power either to some form of central government or in some areas to the existing provincial governments if the constituent assembly was not fully representative, i.e., if the Muslim majority provinces did not join.

  • British powers and obligations vis-a-vis the princely states would lapse with transfer of power, but these wouldnot be transferred to any successor government in British India.

  • Mountbatten would replace Wavell as the viceroy. The statement contained clear hints of partition and even Balkanisation of the country into numerous states and was, in essence, a reversion of the Cripps Offer.

 

Both the statements are correct.

 

Q4. Consider the following statements.

Assertion (A): British Government fixed a Date for Withdrawal from India in Attlee’s Statement of February 20, 1947

Reason (R): The government hoped that a fixed date would shock the parties into an agreement on the main question.

In the context of the above, which of these is correct?

  1. a) A is correct, and R is an appropriate explanation of A.

  2. b) A is correct, but R is not an appropriate explanation of A.

  3. c) A is correct, but R is incorrect.

  4. d) Both A and R are incorrect.

Answer a

Explanation:

Why a Date Fixed by Government for Withdrawal

  • The government hoped that a fixed date would shock the parties into an agreement on the main question.

  • The government was keen to avert the developing constitutional crisis.

  • The government hoped to convince the Indians of British sincerity.

  • The truth in Wavell’s assessment could no longer be denied—that an irreversible decline of the government’s authority had taken place.

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Q5. Consider the following statements

  1. The provision of transfer of power to more than one centre made in Atlee’s Declaration was not acceptable to Congress.

  2. Atlee’s Declaration offered a way out of the existing deadlock.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. None

Answer: b

Explanation: 

Congress Stand

The provision of transfer of power to more than one centre was acceptable to Congress because it meant that the existing assembly could go ahead and frame a constitution for the areas represented by it, and it offered a way out of the existing deadlock.

Hence 1 is incorrect.

 

Q6. Consider the following wrt Indian Response to Attlee’s Statement of February 20, 1947

  1. League launched a civil disobedience movement to overthrow the coalition government in Punjab after Atlee’s Declaration

  2. The provision made in Atlee’s Declaration was acceptable to Congress.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. None

Answer: c

Explanation:

The provision of transfer of power to more than one centre was acceptable to Congress because it meant that the existing assembly could go ahead and frame a constitution for the areas represented by it, and it offered a way out of the existing deadlock.

But the illusory hopes of a settlement were soon shattered as the statement proved to be a prelude to the final showdown. The League launched a civil disobedience movement to overthrow the coalition government in Punjab, as it felt emboldened by the statement

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Q7.Consider the following statements.

Assertion (A): Mountbatten proved more firm and quick in taking decisions than his predecessors.

Reason (R): British government wanted to  quit at the earliest.

In the context of the above, which of these is correct?

  1. a) A is correct, and R is an appropriate explanation of A.

  2. b) A is correct, but R is not an appropriate explanation of A.

  3. c) A is correct, but R is incorrect.

  4. d) Both A and R are incorrect.

Answer a

Explanation:

  • Mountbatten proved more firm and quick in taking decisions than his predecessors because he was informally given more powers to decide things on the spot.

  • He also had the advantage of the firm decision of the British government to quit at the earliest.

  • His task was to explore the options of unity and division till October 1947 and then advise the British government on the form of transfer of power.

  • But he soon discovered that the broad contours of the scenario to emerge were discernible even before he came to India.

 

Q8. Consider the following statements

  1. Two dominions and two constituent assemblies would be created.

  2. Referendums to take place in NWFP and Sylhet district of Bengal.

The above statements are true with respect to which of the following

  1. Mountbatten Plan

  2. Wavell Plan

  3. Cabinet mission plan

  4. Cripps Mission

 

Answer a

Explanation:

The important points of the Mountbatten Plan  were as follows.

  • Punjab and Bengal Legislative Assemblies wouldmeet in two groups, Hindus and Muslims, to vote for partition. If a simple majority of either group voted for partition, then these provinces would be partitioned.

  • In case of partition, two dominions and two constituent assemblies would be created.

  • Sindh would take its own decision.

  • Referendums in NWFP and Sylhet district of Bengal would decide the fate of these areas

 

Q9. Consider the following statements

Assertion (A): The Congress was willing to accept dominion status in Mountbatten Plan

Reason (R): It would ensure a peaceful and quick transfer of power

In the context of the above, which of these is correct?

  1. a) A is correct, and R is an appropriate explanation of A.

  2. b) A is correct, but R is not an appropriate explanation of A.

  3. c) A is correct, but R is incorrect.

  4. d) Both A and R are incorrect.

Answer a

Explanation:

The Congress was willing to accept dominion status despite its being against the Lahore Congress (1929) spirit because

(i) it would ensure a peaceful and quick transfer of power;

(ii) it was more important for the Congress to assume authority to check the explosive situation; and

(iii) it would allow for some much needed continuity in the bureaucracy and the army.

For Britain, the dominion status offered a chance to keep India in the Commonwealth, even if temporarily, considering the economic strength, defence potential and greater value of trade and investment in India.

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Q10.Consider the following with respect to Indian Independence Act

  1. The Act was passed in the British Parliament on August 15, 1947.

  2. The Act provided for the creation of three independent dominions of India ,Pakistan and Bangladesh.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. None

Answer d

Explanation:

 Indian Independence Act

  • On July 5, 1947 the British Parliament passed the Indian Independence Act which was based on the Mountbatten Plan,

  • and the Act got royal assent on June 18, 1947.

  • The Act was implemented on August 15, 1947.

  • The Act provided for the creation of two independent dominions of India and Pakistan with effect from August 15, 1947.

  • Hence both statements are incorrect

 

Q11. Consider the following with respect to Indian Independence Act

  1. A unified constituent assembly was to exercise the powers of the legislature of both dominions till new legislative assemblies were not formed.

  2. The governments of the two dominions were to be carried on in accordance with the Indian Independence Act 1947.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. None

Answer d

Explanation:

  • Each dominion was to have a governor-general to be responsible for the effective operation of the Act.

  • The constituent assembly of the each new dominion was to exercise the powers of the legislature of that dominion, and the existing Central Legislative Assembly and the Council of States were to be automatically dissolved.

  • For the transitional period, i.e., till a new constitution was adopted by each dominion, the governments of the two dominions were to be carried on in accordance with the Government of India Act, 1935.

  • Hence both statements are incorrect

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Q12. Which of the following statements is incorrect.

  1. As per the Indian Independence Act, 1947, Pakistan became independent on August 14 1947

  2. As per the Indian Independence Act, 1947, India got its freedom on August 15, 1947.

  3. A. Jinnah became the first Governor-General of Pakistan.

  4. India, decided to make C Rajagoplachari as the Governor-General of India till completion of Constitution.

 

Answer d

Explanation

  • As per the provisions of the Indian Independence Act, 1947, Pakistan became independent on August 14

  • while India got its freedom on August 15, 1947.

  • A. Jinnah became the first Governor-General of Pakistan.

  • India, however, decided to request Lord Mountbatten to continue as the Governor-General of India. Hence statement d is incorrect

 

Q13. Consider the following statements

  1. There were institutional structures within which partition problems could be tackled effectively

  2. Mountbatten was made the common Governor General of India and Pakistan thus providing the necessary link.

  3. The Boundary Commission Award (under Radcliffe) was declared on 12th August 1947

Select the incorrect answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer d

Explanation:

Problems of Early withdrawal

The breakneck speed of events under Mountbatten caused anomalies in arranging the details of partition and totally failed to prevent the Punjab massacre, because

  • there were no transitional institutional structures within which partition problems could be tackled;

  • Mountbatten had hoped to be the common GovernorGeneral of India and Pakistan, thus providing the necessary link, but Jinnah wanted the position for himself in Pakistan;

  • there was a delay in announcing the Boundary Commission Award (under Radcliffe); though the award was ready by August 12, 1947 Mountbatten decided to make it public after August 15 so that the British could escape all responsibility of disturbances.

Hence all statements are incorrect

 

 

Q14.Most of the princely states signed instrument of accession  easily as

  1. They were ‘surrendering’ only what they never had as defence, external affairs and communication always had been a part of the British paramountcy.

  2. There was no change in the internal political structure.

  3. They were offered generous privy purse which they could not refuse

  4. Some princes were made governors and rajpramukhs in free India.

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Select the correct answer using code given below.

(a) 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer d

Explanation:

  • By August 15, 1947, all states except Kashmir, Hyderabad and Junagarh had signed an instrument of accession with the Indian government, acknowledging central authority over defence, external affairs and communication.

  • The princes agreed to this fairly easily because

  • (i) they were ‘surrendering’ only what they never had (these three functions had been a part of the British paramountcy) and

  • (ii) there was no change in the internal political structure.

  • The second phase involved a much more difficult process of ‘integration’ of states with neighbouring provinces or into new units like the Kathiawar Union, Vindhya and Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan or Himachal Pradesh along with internal constitutional changes in states which for some years retained their old boundaries (Hyderabad, Mysore, TravancoreCochin). This phase was accomplished within a year.

  • The principal bait offered was a generous privy purse while some princes were made governors and rajpramukhs in free India.

This rapid political unification of the country after independence was Patel’s greatest achievement.

 

 

Q15.Consider the following statements with respect to League’s demands

  1. During Cripps Mission (1942), autonomy of Muslim majority provinces was accepted

  2. During Gandhi-Jinnah talks (1944), Gandhi accepted the right of self-determination of Muslim-majority provinces.

  3. With the Wavell Plan, Congress accepted partition

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer b

Explanation:

— During Cripps Mission (1942), autonomy of Muslim majority provinces was accepted.

— During Gandhi-Jinnah talks (1944), Gandhi accepted the right of self-determination of Muslim-majority provinces.

— After the Cabinet Mission Plan (1946) Congress conceded the possibility of Muslim majority provinces getting up a separate constituent assembly. Later, the Congress accepted, without demur, that grouping was compulsory (December 1946).

— Official reference to Pakistan came in March 1947, when CWC resolution stated that Punjab (and by implication, Bengal) must be partitioned if the country was divided.

— With the 3rd June Plan, Congress accepted partition. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

 

 

16) Which of the following is the correct chronological order of the events of British India during Second world war?

  1. a) Resignation Of Congress Government, August offer, Wavell Plan, Cripps Mission

  2. b) Resignation Of Congress Government ,August Offer, Cripps Mission, Wavell Plan

  3. c) August Offer, Resignation Of Congress Government, Wavell Plan, Crips mission

  4. d) Crips Mission, Resignation Of Congress Government, August Offer, Wavell Plan

Answer b

1.Congress Ministries Decide to Resign : October 23, 1939, the CWC meeting

  • rejected the viceregal statement as a reiteration of the old imperialist policy;

  • decided not to support the war; and

  • called upon the Congress ministries to resign in the provinces.

2.Linlithgow announced the August Offer (August 1940) which proposed:

  • dominion status as the objective for India;

  • expansion of viceroy’s executive council which would have a majority of Indians (who would be drawn from major political parties);

  • setting up of a constituent assembly after the war where mainly Indians would decide the constitution

according to their social, economic and political conceptions, subject to fulfilment of the obligation

of the government regarding defence, minority rights, treaties with States, all India services; and

  • no future constitution to be adopted without the consent of minorities.

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3.In March 1942, a mission headed by Stafford Cripps was sent to India with constitutional proposals to seek Indian support for the war.

  1. A conference was convened by the viceroy, Lord Wavell, at Shimla in June 1945. The main proposals of the Wavell Plan were as follows.

  • With the exception of the governor-general and the commander-in-chief, all members of the executive council were to be Indians.

  • Caste Hindus and Muslims were to have equal representation.

  • The reconstructed council was to function as an interim government within the framework of the 1935 Act (i.e. not responsible to the Central Assembly).

  • The governor-general was to exercise his veto on the advice of ministers.

  • Representatives of different parties were to submit a joint list to the viceroy for nominations to the executive council. If a joint list was not possible, then separate lists were to be submitted.

  • Possibilities were to be kept open for negotiations on a new constitution once the war was finally won.

 

 

17) Consider the following statements regarding Communist Movement in India.

  1. Peshawar Conspiracy (1922-23) is related with Chapekar Brothers.

  2. The Communist party remained loyal to British government during Quit India Movement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. a) 2 only

  2. b) 1 only

  3. c) 1 and 2 both

  4. d) None of the Above

Answer b

  • The Peshawar Conspiracy Case refers to a set of five cases which took place between 1922 and 1927 in the British Indian Empire. The people who were tried in these cases had sneaked into the British Raj from the Russian Empire to start a revolution. The twenties of twentieth century was a decade which saw the revival of revolutionary movement in the British Raj. The British Imperial government in the Indian Subcontinent was terrified by the idea of spread of communism in Raj. It was not the only case which became popular and galvanized the imagination of the young population of the Indian Subcontinent, there were similar such cases.

  • Communist party supported British during the QIM this caused the rift between communists and congress.

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18) Consider the following statements :

  1. The Indian Independence Act was based on the Cabinet Mission Plan.

  2. The Mountbatten Plan aimed to balkanise India into small parts

  3. The Cabinet Mission Plan incorporated the full-fledged demand for a separate state of Pakistan.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) None of the above

Answer b

 

Explaantion:

  • Mountbatten’s first proposed solution for the Indian subcontinent, known as the ‘May Plan’, was rejected by Congress leader Jawaharlal Nehru on the grounds it would cause the ‘balkanisation of India’.

  • Indian Independence Act 1947. The Indian Independence Act was based upon the Mountbatten plan of 3rd June 1947 and was passed by the British parliament on July 5, 1947. It received royal assent on July 18, 1947.

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Chapter 26

Constitutional, Administrative and Judicial Developments

Q1.Consider the following statements  with reference to Regulating Act, 1773,

  1. It was an effort to control and regulate the functioning of the East India Company.

  2. It totally subjected the activities of the East India Company under the British Government.

  3. A board of control was established.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 2 and 3

Answer a

Explanation:

  • Regulating Act, 1773, permitted the company to retain its territorial possessions in India but sought to regulate the activities and functioning of the company. It did not take over power completely, hence called ‘regulating’. Hence Statement 2 is in corect

  • The act provided for appointment of a Governor-General along with four Councillors in the Presidency of Fort William (Calcutta), jointly called the Governor-General in Council.

  • As per this, Warren Hastings was appointed as the Governor-General of the Presidency of Fort William.

  • The Governors in Councils at Madras and Bombay were brought under the control of Bengal, especially in matters of foreign policy. Now, they could not wage war against Indian states without Bengal’s approval.

  • The company directors were elected for a period of five years and one-fourth of them were to retire every year. Also, they could not be re-elected.

  • The company directors were directed to make public all correspondence on revenue, civil and military matters with Indian authorities before the British authorities.

  • A Supreme Court of Judicature was established at Calcutta with Sir Elijah Impey as the first Chief Justice. Judges were to come from England. It had civil and criminal jurisdiction over the British subjects and not Indian natives.

  • Board of control was established by Pitts India Act. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect

 

 

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Q2. Consider the following statements about Morley Minto reforms

  1. It provided separate electorates for Muslims, Sikhs, Indian Christians and Anglo-Indians.

  2. It introduced direct elections in the country for the first time.

  3. One Indian was to be appointed to the viceroy’s executive council

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 3  only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

 

Answer b

Explanation:

  • The elective principle was recognised for the nonofficial membership of the councils in India. Indians were allowed to participate in the election of various legislative councils, though on the basis of class and community.

  • For the first time, separate electorates for Muslims for election to the central council was established—a most detrimental step for India. Hence statement 1 is incorrect

  • The number of elected members in the Imperial Legislative Council and the Provincial Legislative Councils was increased.

  • According to Sumit Sarkar, in the Imperial Legislative Council, of the total 69 members, 37 were to be the officials and of the 32 non-officials, 5 were to be nominated. Of the 27 elected non-officials, 8 seats were reserved for the Muslims under separate electorates (only Muslims could vote here for the Muslim candidates), while 4 seats were reserved for the British capitalists, 2 for the landlords and 13 seats came under general electorate.

  • The elected members were to be indirectly elected. The local bodies were to elect an electoral college, which in turn would elect members of provincial legislatures, who in turn would elect members of the central legislature. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

  • Besides separate electorates for the Muslims, representation in excess of the strength of their population was accorded to the Muslims. Also, the income qualification for Muslim voters was kept lower than that for Hindus.

  • One Indian was to be appointed to the viceroy’s executive council (Satyendra Sinha was the first Indian to be appointed in 1909)

 

Q3. Consider the following statements regarding Illbert bill:

  1. It was strongly opposed by the Indians.

  2. It was introduced in 1883 during the Viceroyship of the Marquess of Ripon.

3., It violated the principle of natural justice.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

 (c) 2  only

 (d) 1 and 3 only

Answer d

 

Explanation:

  • The Ilbert Bill was a bill introduced in 1883 during the Viceroyship of the Marquess of Ripon, which was written by Sir Courtenay Peregrine Ilbert (The law member of the Viceroy’s Council). According to the said Act, Indian judges could try Europeans.

  • The introduction of the bill led to intense opposition in Britain and from British settlers in India that ultimately played on racial tension before it was enacted in 1884 in a severely compromised state.

  • There was a strong protest among Europeans. Hence statement 1 is incorrect

  • It was in sync with the principle of natural justice. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

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Q4.Consider the following statements

1.The system of dual government came into being after the battle of Buxar

  1. The Company’s bankruptcy, while the servants were flourishing wass the reason for regulating act of 1773.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 Answer c

Explanation:  1765-72 The dual system of government where the Company had the authority but no responsibility and its Indian representatives had all the responsibility but no authority continued for seven years. This period was characterised by—

  • rampant corruption among servants of the Company who made full use of private trading to enrich themselves;

  • excessive revenue collection and oppression of peasantry;

  • the Company’s bankruptcy, while the servants were flourishing.

By now the British government decided to regulate the Company to bring some order into its business. From now, there would be a gradual increase in controlling laws

 

Q5.The following statements are related to which act of British India

  1. It recognised that the Company’s role in India extended beyond mere trade to administrative and political fields.

  2. The British cabinet was given the right to exercise control over Indian affairs.

 (a) The Regulating Act of 1773

(b) Pitt’s India Act of 1784

(c) The Charter Act of 1793

(d) The Charter Act of 1813

Answer a

Explanation:

 The 1973 Regulating Act brought about the British government’s involvement in Indian affairs in the effort to control and regulate the functioning of the East India Company.

  • It recognised that the Company’s role in India extended beyond mere trade to administrative and political fields, and introduced the element of centralized administration.

  • The directors of the Company were required to submit all correspondence regarding revenue affairs and civil and military administration to the government. (Thus for the first time, the British cabinet was given the right to exercise control over Indian affairs.)

Q6. Consider the following statements  with reference to Regulating Act, 1773,

  1. A Supreme Court of judicature was to be established in Bengal

  2. The Company’s bankruptcy, while the servants were flourishing was the reason for regulating act of 1773.

Which among the above statement/s is/are correct?

  1. a) 1 only

  2. b) 2 only

  3. c) Both 1 and 2

  4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer c

Explanation:

The Regulating Act of 1773

  • In Bengal, the administration was to be carried out by governor-general and a council consisting of 4 members, representing civil and military government. They were required to function according to the majority rule. Warren Hastings and four others were named in the Act, later ones were to be appointed by the Company.

  • A Supreme Court of judicature was to be established in Bengal with original and appellate jurisdictions where all subjects could seek redressal. In practice, however, the Supreme Court had a debatable jurisdiction vis-a-vis the council which created various problems.

  • The governor-general could exercise some powers over Bombay and Madras—again, a vague provision which created many problems.

The whole scheme was based on checks and balances.

Q7. The following statements are related to which act of British India

  1. The Company’s monopoly over trade with China and in tea ended.

  2. European colonisation of India was given a push by lifting restrictions on European immigration and the acquisition of property .

  3. All territories were placed under complete control of the governor-general

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(a) The Charter Act of 1853

 (b) Pitt’s India Act of 1784

(c) The Act for Better Government of India, 1858

(d) The Charter Act of 1833

Answer d

Explanation:

The Charter Act of 1833

  • The Governments of Madras and Bombay were drastically deprived of their legislative powers and left with a right of proposing to the governor-general the projects of law which they thought to be expedient.

  • Bengal, Madras, Bombay and all other territories were placed under complete control of the governor-general.

  • All restrictions on European immigration and the acquisition of property in India were lifted. Thus, the way was paved for the wholesale European colonization of India.

  • The lease of 20 years to the Company was further extended. Territories of India were to be governed in the name of the Crown.

  • The Company’s monopoly over trade with China and in tea also ended.

 

Q8.The following statements are related to which act of British India

  1. The Company’s territories in India were termed ‘British possessions’

  2. A general prohibition was placed on aggressive wars and treaties

 (a) The Regulating Act of 1773

(b) Pitt’s India Act of 1784

(c) The Charter Act of 1793

(d) The Charter Act of 1813

Answer b

Explanation:  Pitt’s India Act of 1784

  • The Pitt’s India Act gave the British government a large measure of control over the Company’s affairs. In fact, the Company became a subordinate department of the State.

The Company’s territories in India were termed ‘British possessions’.

  • The government’s control over the Company’s affairs was greatly extended. A Board of Control consisting of the chancellor of exchequer, a secretary of state and four members of the Privy Council (to be appointed by the Crown) were to exercise control over the Company’s civil, military and revenue affairs. All dispatches were to be approved by the board. Thus a dual system of control was set up.

  • In India, the governor-general was to have a council of three (including the commander-in-chief), and the presidencies of Bombay and Madras were made subordinate to the governor-general.

  • A general prohibition was placed on aggressive wars and treaties (breached often)

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Q9. Consider the following statements  with reference to Pitt’s India Act of 1784

  1. A Board of Control to exercise control over the Company’s civil, military and revenue affairs was constituted.

  2. The presidencies of Bombay and Madras were made subordinate to the governor-general.

Which among the above statement/s is/are incorrect?

  1. a) 1 only

  2. b) 2 only

  3. c) Both 1 and 2

  4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer d

 

Explanation:

  • The government’s control over the Company’s affairs was greatly extended. A Board of Control consisting of the chancellor of exchequer, a secretary of state and four members of the Privy Council (to be appointed by the Crown) were to exercise control over the Company’s civil, military and revenue affairs. All dispatches were to be approved by the board. Thus a dual system of control was set up.

  • In India, the governor-general was to have a council of three (including the commander-in-chief), and the presidencies of Bombay and Madras were made subordinate to the governor-general.

 

Q10. The following statements are related to which act of British India

  1. The powers of both the governor-general and the commander-in-chief were vested in governor-general.

  2. Governor-general was given the power to override the council’s decision.

 

(a) The Act of 1786

(b) Pitt’s India Act of 1784

(c) The Charter Act of 1793

(d) The Charter Act of 1813

Answer a

Explanation: The Act of 1786

  • Cornwallis wanted to have the powers of both the governor-general and the commander-in-chief. The new Act conceded this demand and also gave him the power.

  • Cornwallis was allowed to override the council’s decision if he owned the responsibility for the decision.Later, this provision was extended to all the governor general.

 

Q11. The following statements are related to which act of British India

  1. The royal approval was mandated for the appointment of the governor-general, the governors, and the commander in-chief.

  2. The Company was empowered to give licenses to individuals as well as the Company’s employees to trade in

 

(a) The Regulating  Act of 1773

(b) Pitt’s India Act of 1784

(c) The Charter Act of 1793

(d) The Charter Act of 1813

Answer c

Explanaton:

The Charter Act of 1793

  • The Act renewed the Company’s commercial privileges for next 20 years.

  • The Company, after paying the necessary expenses,interest, dividends, salaries, etc., from the Indian revenues, was to pay 5 lakh pounds annually to the British government.

  • The royal approval was mandated for the appointment of the governor-general, the governors, and the commanderin-chief.

  • Senior officials of the Company were debarred from leaving India without permission—doing so was treated as resignation.

  • The Company was empowered to give licences to individuals as well as the Company’s employees to trade in India. The licences, known as ‘privilege’ or ‘country trade’, paved the way for shipments of opium to China.

  • The revenue administration was separated from the judiciary functions and this led to disappearing of the Maal Adalats.

  • The Home Government members were to be paid out of Indian revenues which continued up to 1919.

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Q12. Consider the following statements  with reference to The Charter Act of 1793

  1. The revenue administration was separated from the judiciary functions

  2. ‘Privilege’ or ‘country trade’, paved the way for shipments of opium to China.

Which among the above statement/s is/are correct?

  1. a) 1 only

  2. b) 2 only

  3. c) Both 1 and 2

  4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer c

Explanation:

The Charter Act of 1793

  • The Company was empowered to give licences to individuals as well as the Company’s employees to trade in India. The licences, known as ‘privilege’ or ‘country trade’, paved the way for shipments of opium to China.

  • The revenue administration was separated from the judiciary functions and this led to disappearing of the Maal Adalats.

  • The Home Government members were to be paid out of Indian revenues which continued up to 1919.

 

Q13. Continental system by Napoleon led to which of the following reforms in India

(a) The Regulating  Act of 1773

(b) The Charter Act of 1813

(c) The Charter Act of 1793

(d) Pitt’s India Act of 1784

Answer b

Explanation: The Charter Act of 1813

In England, the business interests were pressing for an end to the Company’s monopoly over trade in India because of a spirit of laissez-faire and the continental system by Napoleon by which the European ports were closed for Britain. The 1813 Act sought to redress these grievance.

 

  1. Consider the following statements with reference to The Charter Act of 1813

  2. The Company’s monopoly over trade with China and in tea also ended.

  3. ‘Indian laws were to be codified and consolidated

  4. A sum of one lakh rupees was to be set aside for the encouragement of literature, learning and science among the natives of India.

Select the correct answer using the codes givenbelow:

Code:

  1. a) 1 only

  2. b) 1 and 3 only

  3. c) 1 and 2 only

  4. d) 3 only

Answer d

Explanation: The 1813 Act sought to redress these grievances—

  • The Company’s monopoly over trade in India ended, but the Company retained the trade with China and the trade in tea. Hence statement 1 is incorrect

  • Powers of the Board of Control were further enlarged.

  • A sum of one lakh rupees was to be set aside for the revival, promotion and encouragement of literature, learning and science among the natives of India, every year. (This was an important statement from the point of State’s responsibility for education.) . Hence statement 3 is correct

Statement 2 is correct with respect to The Charter Act of 1813

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Q15. Consider the following statements with reference to The Charter Act of 1833

  1. The lease of 20 years to the Company by The Charter Act of 1813 was further extended.

  2. Territories of India were to be governed in the name of the Crown

  3. The administration was urged to ultimately abolish slavery.

  4. Christian missionaries were also permitted to come to India and preach their religion.

Which of the above statements are correct

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. a) 1, 2 and 3 only

  2. b) 1,3 and 4 only

  3. c) 2 and 3 only

  4. d) 1,2 and 4 only

Answer a

Explanation:

The Charter Act of 1833

  • The lease of 20 years to the Company was further extended.

  • Territories of India were to be governed in the name of the Crown.

  • The administration was urged to take steps to ameliorate the conditions of slaves and to ultimately abolish slavery. (Slavery was abolished in 1843.)

  • Statement 4 is incorrect as it is true for The Charter Act of 1813

 

Q16. Consider the following statements  with reference to The Charter Act of 1813

  1. The Company’s shareholders were given a 10.5 percent dividend on the revenue of India.

  2. Christian missionaries were also permitted to come to India and preach their religion.

Which among the above statement/s is/are correct?

  1. a) 1 only

  2. b) 2 only

  3. c) Both 1 and 2

  4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer c

Explanation:

The Charter Act of 1813

  • The Company’s monopoly over trade in India ended, but the Company retained the trade with China and the trade in tea.

  • The Company’s shareholders were given a 10.5 per cent dividend on the revenue of India.

  • The Company was to retain the possession of territories and the revenue for 20 years more, without prejudice to the sovereignty of the Crown. (Thus, the constitutional position of the British territories in India was defined explicitly for the first time.)

  • Powers of the Board of Control were further enlarged.

  • A sum of one lakh rupees was to be set aside for the revival, promotion and encouragement of literature, learning and science among the natives of India, every year. (This was an important statement from the point of State’s responsibility for education.)

  • The regulations made by the Councils of Madras, Bombay and Calcutta were now required to be laid before the British Parliament. The constitutional position of the British territories in India was thus explicitly defined for the first time.

  • Separate accounts were to be kept regarding commercial transactions and territorial revenues. The power of superintendence and direction of the Board of Control was not only defined but also enlarged considerably.

  • Christian missionaries were also permitted to come to India and preach their religion.

  1. Consider the following statements with reference to The Charter Act of 1833

  2. No discrimination in employment under the Company on the basis of religion, colour, birth, descent

  3. The governor-general was given the power to superintend, control and direct only the civil affairs of the Company.

Which among the above statement/s is/are correct?

  1. a) 1 only

  2. b) 2 only

  3. c) Both 1 and 2

  4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Answer a

Explanation:

The Charter Act of 1833

  • The lease of 20 years to the Company was further extended. Territories of India were to be governed in the name of the Crown.

  • The Company’s monopoly over trade with China and in tea also ended.

  • All restrictions on European immigration and the acquisition of property in India were lifted. Thus, the way was paved for the wholesale European colonisation of India.

  • In India, a financial, legislative and administrative centralisation of the government was envisaged:

— The governor-general was given the power to superintend, control and direct all civil and military affairs of the Company. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

— Bengal, Madras, Bombay and all other territories were placed under complete control of the governor-general.

— All revenues were to be raised under the authority of the governor-general who would have complete control over the expenditure too.

— The Governments of Madras and Bombay were drastically deprived of their legislative powers and left with a right of proposing to the governor-general the projects of law which they thought to be expedient.

  • A law member was added to the governor-general’s council for professional advice on law-making.

  • Indian laws were to be codified and consolidated.

  • No Indian citizen was to be denied employment under the Company on the basis of religion, colour, birth, descent, etc. (Although the reality was different, this declaration formed the sheet-anchor of political agitation in India.)

  • The administration was urged to take steps to ameliorate the conditions of slaves and to ultimately abolish slavery. (Slavery was abolished in 1843.)

 

Q18. Which of these are matched correctly?

      Act                                                                      Provision

  1. The Charter Act of 1853 The Company’s monopoly over trade with China and in tea also ended

  2. The Charter Act of 1833 Indian laws were to be codified and consolidated.

  3. The Charter Act of 1813 Territories of India were to be governed in the name of the Crown

  4. The Charter Act of 1793 The revenue administration was separated from the judiciary functions

Code:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 2 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer c

Explanation:

  1. The Company’s monopoly over trade with China and in tea also ended The Charter Act of 1833

  2. Indian laws were to be codified and consolidated. The Charter Act of 1833

  3. Territories of India were to be governed in the name of the Crown The Charter Act of 1833

  4. The revenue administration was separated from the judiciary functions The Charter Act of 1793            

 

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  1. The dual system introduced by the Pitt’s India Act came to an end by which of the following act.

(a) The Regulating  Act of 1773

(b) The Charter Act of 1813

(c) The Charter Act of 1793

(d) The Act for Better Government of India, 1858

 

Answer : d

Explantion: India was to be governed by and in the name of the Crown through a secretary of state and a council of 15. The initiative and the final decision was to be with the secretary of state and the council was to be just advisory in nature. (Thus, the dual system introduced by the Pitt’s India Act came to an end.)

  • Governor-general became the viceroy (his prestige, if not authority, increased). The assumption of power by the Crown was one of formality rather than substance. It gave a decent burial to an already dead horse—the Company’s administration.

 

Q20. Consider the following statements with reference to Indian Councils Act, 1861

  1. Law-making before 1861 was the exclusive business of the executive.

  2. Lord Canning laid the foundations of cabinet government in India

  3. Legislations made by the assembly could be changed by an executive order.

Which of the above statements are correct

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. a) 1, and 2 only

  2. b) 1, and 3 only

  3. c) 2 and 3 only

  4. d) 1,2 and 3 only

Answer a

Explanation:

Indian Councils Act, 1861

  • The 1861 Act marked an advance in that the principle of representatives of non-officials in legislative bodies became accepted.

  • Laws were to be made after due deliberation, and as pieces of legislation they could be changed only by the same deliberative process. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

  • Law-making was thus no longer seen as the exclusive business of the executive.

  • The portfolio system introduced by Lord Canning laid the foundations of cabinet government in India, each branch of the administration having its official head and spokesman in the government, who was responsible for its administration.

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Q21. Consider the following statements with reference to Indian Councils Act, 1861

  1. Legislative councils had no control over budget.

  2. Legislative councils could discuss the executive action.

  3. Secretary of state could disallow a legislation.

Which of the above statements are incorrect

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. a) 1, and 2 only

  2. b) 1, and 3 only

  3. c) 2 only

  4. d) 1,2 and 3 only

Answer c

Explanation: 

Indian Councils Act, 1861

  • The 1861 Act marked an advance in that the principle of representatives of non-officials in legislative bodies became accepted; laws were to be made after due deliberation, and as pieces of legislation they could be changed only by the same deliberative process.

  • Law-making was thus no longer seen as the exclusive business of the executive.

  • The portfolio system introduced by Lord Canning laid the foundations of cabinet government in India, each branch of the administration having its official head and spokesman in the government, who was responsible for its administration.

  • The Act by vesting legislative powers in the Governments of Bombay and Madras and by making provision for the institution of similar legislative councils in other provinces laid the foundations of legislative devolution.

  • The councils could not discuss important matters and no financial matters at all without previous approval of government. They had no control over budget. They could not discuss executive action. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Final passing of the bill needed viceroy’s approval. Even if approved by the viceroy, the secretary of state could disallow a legislation. Indians associated as non-officials were members of elite sections only.

 

Q22. Consider the following statements with reference to Indian Councils Act, 1892

  1. It introduced the principle of representation

  2. Legislators could put questions within certain limits to the executive on matters of public interests

  3. The members of the legislatures were entitled to put questions upon financial statements

Which of the above statements are correct

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. a) 1, and 2 only

  2. b) 1, and 3 only

  3. c) 2 only

  4. d) 1,2 and 3 only

 

Answer a

Explanation: 

Indian Councils Act, 1892

  • In 1885, the Indian National Congress was founded. The Congress saw reform of the councils as the “root of all other reforms”. It was in response to the Congress demand that the legislative councils be expanded that the number of non-official members was increased both in the central(Imperial) and provincial legislative councils by the Indian Councils Act, 1892.

  • The universities, district boards, municipalities, zamindars, trade bodies and chambers of commerce were empowered to recommend members to the provincial councils. Thus was introduced the principle of representation. Hence statement 1 is correct

  • Though the term ‘election’ was firmly avoided in the Act, an element of indirect election was accepted in the selection of some of the non-official members.

  • The members of the legislatures were now entitled to express their views upon financial statements which were henceforth to be made on the floor of the legislatures. But they could not ask questions on budget. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

  • They could also put questions within certain limits to the executive on matters of public interest after giving six days’ notice. Hence statement 2 is correct

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Q23.Consider the following statements with reference to Indian Councils Act, 1909

  1. It introduced the principle of direct election.

  2. The members could discuss budget and move resolutions.

  3. It introduced separate electorates for the Muslims and Sikhs.

Which of the above statements are incorrect

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. a) 1, and 3 only

  2. b) 1, and 2 only

  3. c) 2 and 3 only

  4. d) 1,2 and 3 only

Answer a

Explanation:

Indian Councils Act, 1909

  • The system of election was very indirect. Hence statement 1 is incorrect

  • The introduction of separate electorates for Muslims created new problems. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

  • The members could discuss budget and move resolutions. They could also discuss matters of public interest. Hence statement 2 is correct.

 

Q24. Which of these are not matched correctly?

      Act                                                                      Provision

  1. The Charter Act of 1853 Governor-general became the viceroy

  2. Indian Councils Act, 1861 The portfolio system was introduced

  3. Indian Councils Act, 1892 Legislators could also ask supplementary questions.                                                                  

  4. Indian Councils Act, 1909 Introduced Direct Election in India

Code:

(a) 1 ,2 and 4

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 ,3 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer c

Explanation:

  1. The Act for Better Government of India, 1858– Governor-general became the viceroy

  2. Indian Councils Act, 1861 The portfolio system was introduced

  3. Indian Councils Act, 1892 Legislators could not ask supplementary questions.                                                                  

  4. Indian Councils Act, 1909 Introduced indirect Election in India

 

 

Q25.Which of the following Reform was brought after the British government declared that its objective was to gradually introduce responsible government in India.

(a) Government Of India Act 1935

(b) The Act for Better Government of India, 1858

(c) Government Of India Act  1919

(d) Indian Councils Act, 1909

Answer c

Explanation: Government of India Act, 1919

  • This Act was based on what are popularly known as the Montague-Chelmsford

  • In August 1917, The British government for the first time declared that its objective was to gradually introduce responsible government in India, but as an integral part of the British Empire.

  • The Act of 1919, clarified that there would be only a gradual development of self-governing institutions in India and that the British Parliament—and not self-determination of the people of India—would determine the time and manner of each step along the path of constitutional progress.

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Q26.Which of the following is not a provision of Government of India Act, 1919

  1. It introduced bicameralism in provinces.

  2. Election to the houses were still indirect in nature

  3. The principle of communal representation was abolished

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. a) 1, and 3 only

  2. b) 1, and 2 only

  3. c) 2 and 3 only

  4. d) 1,2 and 3 only

Answer d

 

Explanation:

  • Under the 1919 Act, the Indian Legislative Council at the Centre was replaced by a bicameral system consisting of a Council of State (Upper House) and a Legislative Assembly (Lower House). Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

  • Each house was to have a majority of members who were directly elected. So, direct election was introduced, though the franchise was much restricted being based on qualifications of property, tax or education. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

  • The principle of communal representation was extended and not abolished with separate electorates for Sikhs, Christians and Anglo-Indians, besides Muslims. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

 

Q27.Consider the following statements with reference to Government of India Act, 1919:

Assertion (A): The Act introduced dyarchy in the provinces, which was a step towards transfer of power to the Indian people

Reason (R): British government  declared that its objective was to gradually introduce responsible government in India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) A is correct, and R is an appropriate explanation for A

(b) A is correct, but R is NOT an appropriate explanation for A

(c) A is correct, but R is incorrect

(d) A and R both are incorrect

Answer a

Explanation

  • This Act was based on what are popularly known as the Montague-Chelmsford

  • In August 1917, The British government for the first time declared that its objective was to gradually introduce responsible government in India, but as an integral part of the British Empire.

  • The Act introduced dyarchy in the provinces, which indeed was a substantial step towards transfer of power to the Indian people.

Hence both assertion and reason are correct

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Q28.Which of the following is a provision of Government of India Act, 1919

  1. It introduced bicameralism in centre.

  2. The Act separated for the first time the provincial and central budgets.

  3. The Secretary of State for was now to be paid by the British Exchequer

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. a) 1, and 3 only

  2. b) 1, and 2 only

  3. c) 2 and 3 only

  4. d) 1,2 and 3 only

Answer d

Explanation:

  • The provincial legislature was to consist of one house only (legislative council) and bicameralism ate centre

  • The Act separated for the first time the provincial and central budgets, with provincial legislatures being authorised to make their budgets.

  • A High Commissioner for India was appointed, who was to hold his office in London for six years and whose duty was to look after Indian trade in Europe. Some of the functions hitherto performed by the Secretary of State for India were transferred to the high commissioner.

  • The Secretary of State for India who used to get his pay from the Indian revenue was now to be paid by the British Exchequer, thus undoing an injustice in the Charter Act of 1793

 

Q29.Consider the following statements

  1. The Act of 1919 made the Indian legislature a sovereign law-making body

  2. The legislature was given same power as the executive in all spheres of governmental activity

Which of the above statements about Government of India Act, 1919 is correct

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer d

Explanation:

  • The Indian legislature under the Act of 1919 was only a non-sovereign law-making body Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

  • It was powerless before the executive in all spheres of governmental activity Hence statement 2 is also incorrect.

 

 

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Q30) The Muddiman Committee was formed to

  1. a) To study the impact of Division Of Bengal

  2. b) To recommend nature of provincial administration for Government of India Act 1935.

  3. c) To study the impact of Communal Awards and suggest remedial measure

  4. d) To study and pinpoint defects in Government of India Act 1919

Answer d

Muddiman Committee

  • Muddiman Committee was appointed by the Government of India at the beginning of 1924.

  • It was established for making an investigation into the working of the constitution as set up in 1921 under the India Act of 1919.

  • The committee was set up due to the growing political unrest on the dyarchy issue of the Constitution.

  • The committee was also known as the Reforms Enquiry Committee.

  • It had Sir Alexander Muddiman as the chairman, who served as the then Home Member of the Government of India.

Source: https://www.indianetzone.com/42/muddiman_committee.htm

 

Q31. Which among the following is not related to Simon Commission

  1. a) Round Table Conferences were called at Delhi to consider the proposals of commission

  2. b) It proposed that a federation of British India and the Princely States be established

  3. c) It was an all White commission

  4. d) To study and pinpoint defects in Government of India Act 1919

Answer a

Explanation:

  • Three Round Table Conferences were called by the British government at London to consider the proposals. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

  • Subsequently, a White Paper on Constitutional Reforms was published by the British government in March 1933 containing provisions for a federal set-up and provincial autonomy.

It recommended

  • dyarchy be abolished,

  • responsible government be extended in the provinces,

  • a federation of British India and the Princely States be established,

  • and that communal electorates be continued

 

Q32. Which among the following is related to Government of India act 1935?

Assertion: Dyarchy, rejected by the Simon Commission, was abolished by Government of India act 1935.

Reason:     It contemplated the establishment of an All-India Federation

 

In the context of the above, which of these is correct?

  1. A is correct, and R is an appropriate explanation of A.

  2. A is correct, but R is not an appropriate explanation of A.

  3. A is incorrect, but R is correct

  4. Both A and R are incorrect

 

Answer c

Explanation:

Government of India Act, 1935

  • The Act, with 451 clauses and 15 schedules, contemplated the establishment of an All-India Federation in which Governors’ Provinces and the Chief Commissioners’ Provinces and those Indian states which might accede to be united were to be included.

  • The ruler of each Princely State willing to join was to sign an ‘instrument of accession’ mentioning the extent to which authority was to be surrendered to the federal government. Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • Dyarchy, rejected by the Simon Commission, was provided for in the Federal Executive. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

  • Dyarchy in the provinces was abolished and provinces were given autonomy,

  • the distinction between Reserved and Transferred Subjects was abolished and full responsible government was established, subject to certain safeguards.

 

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Q33.Consider the following statements regarding the Government of India Act, 1935

  1. The Federal Legislature was to have two chambers

  2. Federal Legislative Assembly (the Lower House) was to be a permanent body

  3. There was a provision for joint sitting in cases of deadlock between the houses.

Which of the above statements about is correct

  1. a) 1, and 3 only

  2. b) 1, and 2 only

  3. c) 2 and 3 only

  4. d) 1,2 and 3 only

Answer a

Explanation:  

Government of India Act, 1935

  • The Act, with 451 clauses and 15 schedules, contemplated the establishment of an All-India Federation

  • The Federal Legislature was to have two chambers (bicameral)—the Council of States and the Federal Legislative Assembly. . Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • The Council of States (the Upper House) was to be a permanent body. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

  • There was a provision for joint sitting in cases of deadlock between the houses.

 

Q34. Consider the following statements regarding the legislative powers in Government of India Act, 1935

  1. The Federal Legislative List, the Provincial Legislative List and the Concurrent Legislative List was introduced.

  2. Federal Legislative List contained highest number of subjects

  3. Residuary legislative powers were subject to the discretion of the British parliament.

 

Which of the above statements about is correct

  1. a) 1, and 3 only

  2. b) 1, and 2 only

  3. c) 2 and 3 only

  4. d) 1,2 and 3 only

 

Answer b

Explaantion:

There were to be three subjectlists—

  • the Federal Legislative List,

  • Provincial LegislativeList

  • the Concurrent Legislative List. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • Residuary legislative powers were subject to the discretion of the governor-general. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

  • Even if a bill was passed by the federal legislature, the governor-general could veto it, while even Acts assented to by the governor-general could be disallowed by the King-in-Council.

  • The federal list contained 59 subjects and right to make laws on those subjects was given only to the federal legislature. Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • The total number of provincial items were 54. The third list known as Concurrent list had 36 subjects.

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Q35. Consider the following statements regarding the powers of the provinces in Government of India Act, 1935

  1. The governor could issue ordinances and budget was made under his control.

  2. Law and Order, Forest, Local Self-Government, Jail ,Education were in Provincial list

  3. Provincial governments were given independent financial powers and resources.

Which of the above statements about is correct

  1. a) 1, and 3 only

  2. b) 1, and 2 only

  3. c) 2 and 3 only

  4. d) 1,2 and 3 only

 

Answer d

Explanation:

 The federal list contained 59 subjects and right to make laws on those subjects was given only to the federal legislature. The main in terms included in this list were

  • Defence,

  • External Affairs,

  • Income-tax, Salt,

  • Post and Telegraph,

  • Currency and Coinage,

  • Customs Broadcasting, etc.

The subject on which the Provincial legislatures alone were constitutionally authorised to legislate were included in the provincial list. The phere of provincial authority included

  • Law and Order, Forest,

  • Local Self-Government,

  • Jail

  • Education,

  • Agriculture and

  • Public Health. The total number of provincial items were 54.

The third list known as Concurrent list had 36 subjects, including

  • Industrial Disputes,

  • Labour Welfare,

  • Trade Welfare,

  • Trade Union,

  • Press

  • Civil and Criminal Law and Procedure.

 

Provinces derived their power and authority directly from the British Crown. They were given independent financial powers and resources. Provincial governments could borrow money on their own security. Hence statement 3 is correct.

The Governor made considerable in roads into the legislative functions. The governor could issue ordinances and budget was made under his control. . Hence statement 1 is correct.

 

 

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Q36. Consider the following statements regarding the elections  in Government of India Act, 1935

  1. Communal electorate was abolished by Government of India act 1935.

  2. The franchise was extended to 50% population

Which of the above statement/s is/are incorrect

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer c

Explanation; Provincial legislatures were further expanded. Bicameral legislatures were provided in the six provinces of

  • Madras,

  • Bombay,

  • Bengal,

  • United Provinces,

  • Bihar and

  • Assam,

  • with other five provinces retaining unicameral legislatures.

  • The principles of ‘communal electorates’ and ‘weightage’ were further extended to

  • depressed classes,

  • women and

This was a calculated blow to the feeling of oneness in the country, the strength of the Council of State was increased to 260 and that of the Legislative Assembly to 375. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

Another highlight of the Act was the extension of franchise. Nearly 10 percent of the total population got the right to vote. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

 

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Q37. Consider the following statements regarding the Government of India Act, 1935

  1. The Act also provided for a Federal Court to interpret the 1935 Act

  2. The All-India Federation as visualized in the Act came into being in 1937.

  3. The 1935 Act was an endeavor to give India a written constitution, with active involvement of Indians in its creation.

Which of the above statements about is incorrect

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. a) 1, and 3 only

  2. b) 1, and 2 only

  3. c) 2 and 3 only

  4. d) 1,2 and 3 only

 

Answer c

Explanation:  Government of India Act, 1935

  • The Act also provided for a Federal Court (which was established in 1937), with original and appellate powers, to interpret the 1935 Act and settle inter-state disputes, but the Privy Council in London was to dominate this court. Hence statement 1 is correct

  • The India Council of the Secretary of State was abolished.

  • The All-India Federation as visualised in the Act never came into being because of the opposition from different parties of India. Hence statement 2 is incorrect The British government decided to introduce the provincial autonomy on April 1, 1937, but the Central government continued to be governed in accordance with the 1919 Act, with minor amendments. The operative part of the Act of 1935 remained in force till August 15, 1947.

The 1935 Act was an endeavour to give India a written constitution, even though Indians were not involved in its creation, and it was a step towards complete responsible government in India. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

 

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Q38.Arrange the following events in chronological order

  1. Wavell Plan

  2. August Offer

  3. C.R. Formula                                        

  4. Individual Satyagraha

Select the correct code from the options given below

  1. a) 1-2-3-4

  2. b) 2-4-3-1

  3. c) 2-3-1-4

  4. d) 1-3-4-2

Answer b

Explanation:

Various developments took place after the 1935 Act. There was the

  • August Offer of 1940,

  • the Cripps Proposals of 1942,

  • the C.R. Formula of 1944 trying to seek the cooperation of the Muslim League,

  • Wavell Plan of 1945 and

  • the Cabinet Mission. Then came the

  • Mountbatten Plan in 1947 and finally

  • the Indian Independence Act, 1947

 

Q39.With reference to Civil Services, consider the following statements:

  1. The maximum permissible age was gradually Increased from 19 (in 1859) to 23 (1878)

  2. The examination was held in England in English language, based on classical learning of Greek and Latin.

  3. Subash Chandra Bose became the first Indian to qualify for the Indian Civil Service..

Which of the above statements about is incorrect

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. a) 1, and 3 only

  2. b) 1, and 2 only

  3. c) 2 and 3 only

  4. d) 1,2 and 3 only

Answer a

Expalantion:

Indian Civil Service Act, 1861

This Act reserved certain offices for convenanted civil servants but the examination was held in England in English language, based on classical learning of Greek and Latin. Hence statement 2 is correct

The maximum permissible age was gradually reduced from

  • 23 (in 1859) to

  • 22 (in 1860) to

  • 21 (in 1866) and to

  • 19 (1878).

In 1863, Satyendra Nath Tagore became the first Indian to qualify for the Indian Civil Service. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

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Q40 Consider the following statements

1.Mont ford Reforms recommended holding of simultaneous Civil Service examination in India and England

  1. The 1935 Act recommended the establishment of a Federal Public Service Commission and Provincial Public Service Commission

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer c

Explanation:

The Mont Ford reforms—

  • stated a realistic policy—“If a responsible government is to be established in India, the more Indians we can employ in public service, the better.”

  • recommended holding of simultaneous examination in India and England.

  • recommended that one-third of recruitments be made in India itself—to be raised annually by 1.5 per cent under their spheres.

Government of India Act, 1935

The 1935 Act recommended the establishment of a Federal Public Service Commission and Provincial Public Service Commission under their spheres.

But the positions of control and authority remained in British hands and the process of Indianisation of the civil service did not put effective political power in Indian hands since the Indian bureaucrats acted as the agents of colonial rule.

 

 

Q41. With reference to Police reforms, consider the following statements:

  1. 1791 Cornwallis organised a regular police force to maintain law

  2. William Bentick made the collector/magistrate head of the police force.

  3. CID (Criminal Investigation Department) in the provinces and a Central Intelligence Bureau at the Centre during Lord Curzon

Which of the above statements about is correct

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. a) 1, and 3 only

  2. b) 1, and 2 only

  3. c) 2 and 3 only

  4. d) 1,2 and 3 only

Answer d

Explanation:

  • 1791 Cornwallis organised a regular police force to maintain law and order by going back to and modernising the old Indian system of thanas (circles) in a district under a daroga (an Indian) and a superintendent of police (SP) at the head of a district. He relieved the zamindars of their police duties.

  • 1808 Mayo appointed an SP for each division helped by a number of spies (goyendas) but these spies committed depredations on local people.

  • 1814 By an order of the Court of Directors, the appointment of darogas and their subordinates was abolished in all possessions of the Company except in Bengal.

  • Bentinck (governor-general, 1828-35) abolished the office of the SP. The collector/magistrate was now to head the police force in his jurisdiction and the commissioner in each division was to act as the SP. This arrangement resulted in a badly organised police force, putting a heavy burden on the collector/magistrate. Presidency towns were the first to have the duties of collector/magistrate separated.

The recommendations of the Police Commission (1860) led to the Indian Police Act, 1861. The commission recommended—

  • a system of civil constabulary—maintaining the village set-up in the present form (a village watchman maintained by the village) but in direct relationship with the rest of the constabulary.

  • inspector-general as the head in a province, deputy inspector-general as the head in a range, and SP as the head in a district.

The police gradually succeeded in curbing criminal acts, such as dacoity, thugee, etc. But, while dealing with the public, the attitude of the police was unsympathetic. The police was also used to suppress the national movement.The British did not create an All-India Police.

The Police Act, 1861 presented the guidelines for a police setup in the provinces. The ranks were uniformly introduced all over the country.

1902 The Police Commission recommended the establishment of CID (Criminal Investigation Department) in the provinces and a Central Intelligence Bureau at the Centre.

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Q42. Consider the following statements

  1. The Government of India Act 1935 never contemplated the provinces as autonomous units of governance.

  2. Power was only delegated to the states by the Centre

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect

 

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 Answer c

 

 

  • The GoI Act 1935 did envisage states as autonomous units of governance.

  • Hence statement 1 is incorrect

  • The division of legislative powers, between the Centre and the Provinces is of special interest in view of the fact that the division made in the Indian Constitution between the Union and the States proceeds largely on the same lines. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

  • It was not a mere delegation of power by the Centre to the Provinces as by Rules made under the Government of India Act, 1919.

  • The Government of India Act of 1935 itself divided the legislative powers between the Central and Provincial Legislatures and, neither Legislature could transgress the powers assigned to the other.

  • A three-fold division was made in the Act: There was a Federal List over which the Federal Legislature had exclusive powers of legislation.

 

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Chapter 27

Survey of British Policies in India

 

Q1. Consider the following statements with respect to The Indian Factory Act, 1881

  1. Employment of children under 7 years of age prohibited.

  2. Working hours restricted to 14 hours per day for children.

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer a

Explanation:

The Indian Factory Act, 1881 dealt with the problem of child labour (between 7 and 12 years of age).

Its significant provisions were:

  • employment of children under 7 years of age prohibited,

  • working hours restricted to 9 hours per day for children. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

  • children to get four holidays in a month,

  • hazardous machinery to be properly fenced off.

 

 

Q2.  Consider the following statements with respect to The Indian Factory Act, 1891

  1. Reduced maximum working hours for children to 7 hours a day

  2. Fixed maximum working hours for women at 11 hours per day

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer c

The Indian Factory Act, 1891

  • increased the minimum age (from 7 to 9 years) and the maximum (from 12 to 14 years) for children,

  • reduced maximum working hours for children to 7 hours a day,

  • fixed maximum working hours for women at 11 hours per day with an one-and-a-half hour interval (working hours for men were left unregulated),

  • provided weekly holiday for all.

 

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Q3.Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Gentoo Code’

1.It  was used in the British Courts as reference for Hindu Laws in late 18th century.

2.It was based on  Jagannath Tarkapanchanan’s celebrated work on Hindu law, the Vivadabhangarnava

  1. It was first translated from Persian to English and then from Persian to Sanskrit

Which of the above statements are correct

Select the correct codes from the below:

(a) 1and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer a

Explanation:  

  • English translation of jagannath tarkapanchanan’s celebrated work on Hindu law, the Vivadabhangarnava under the title digest of Hindu law on contracts and successions. Hence statement 2 is correct

  • It was first translated in Persian which was official language of that time Hence statement 3 is incorrect .

  • Later in English for the use in courts of the East India Company as “A code of gentoo laws” Hence statement 1 is correct

 

Q4.Consider the following statements with evolution of Indian Press

  1. The nationalists used new advancements in press technology to educate public opinion

  2. Vernacular press act was brought in 1835 by Metcalf

3.Vernacular press act was repealed in 1882

Which of the above statements are correct

Select the correct codes from the below:

(a) 1and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: c

Restrictions on Freedom of the Press

The nationalists had been quick to use new advancements in press technology to educate public opinion and influence government policies through criticism and censure and later to arouse national consciousness.

In 1835, Metcalfe had lifted restrictions imposed on the Indian press. But Lytton, fearing an increased influence of the nationalist press on public opinion, imposed restrictions on Indian language press through the infamous Vernacular Press Act, 1878.

This Act had to be repealed under public protest in 1882. After that, the press enjoyed relative freedom for about two decades, but was under repression again in the wake of swadeshi and anti-partition movement as restrictions were imposed in 1908 and 1910. 

 

 

 

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Q5. Consider the following statements

  1. Religion based divide and rule was used as tool prominently only after 1857 by the British.

  2. British were opposed to modern education as it produced Nationalist leaders.

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Annswer c

Explanation:   Divide and Rule

To avoid a united mass action challenging their authority, the British rulers in India decided to practice a naked policy of divide and rule, by putting

  • princes against states’ people,

  • region against region,

  • province against province,

  • caste against caste and

  • Hindus against Muslims.

After an immediate spell of repression against Muslims, following the 1857 revolt, the authorities decided, after 1870, to use the middle and upper educated classes among Muslims against

  • the rising tide of nationalism,

  • using conflicts over scarce resources in education, administrative jobs and later

  • political spoils (which were inherent in the very logic of colonial underdevelopment) as a tool to create a split along religious lines among educated Indians.

At a time when the nationalist movement was born (Indian National Congress was founded in 1885), the British interpreted the moves as a challenge to their authority and adopted a hostile attitude to such leadership. In fact, from then onwards, they opposed all those who stood for modern education.

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Q6. Consider the following statements with respect to British Attitude towards the Zamindars

  1. The British intended to use zamindars as a counterweight against nationalist-minded intelligentsia.

  2. The zamindars and landlords were hailed as the ‘natural’ and ‘traditional’ leaders of people by British.

  3. The zamindars became hostile of British after 1857.

 

Which of the above statements are correct

Select the correct codes from the below:

(a) 1and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Answer:a

Explanation: Attitude Towards the Zamindars

  • In their pursuit of reactionary policies and hope to expand their social base, the British looked for alliances with the most reactionary of social groups—the princes, zamindars, etc.

  • The British intended to use them as a counterweight against nationalist-minded intelligentsia. Hence statement 1 is correct

  • Now, the zamindars and landlords were hailed as the ‘natural’ and ‘traditional’ leaders of people. Hence statement 2 is correct

  • Lands of most of the Awadh taluqdars confiscated prior to 1857 were restored to them. The interests and privileges of zamindars and landlords were protected in opposition to those of the peasants;

  • The former in turn saw the British as guarantors of their very existence and became their firm supporters. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Q7. Consider the following statements with respect to social reforms in British India.

  1. British encouraged caste and communal consciousness in society.

  2. The social services like education, health, sanitation, physical infrastructure, were given immense importance by the imperial government.

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Answer a

Explanation:

Attitude Towards Social Reforms

Having decided to side with the reactionary elements of Indian society, the British withdrew support to social reforms, which they felt had aroused the wrath of orthodox sections against them. Also, by encouraging caste and communal consciousness, the British helped the reactionary forces.

Hence statement 1 is correct

Underdeveloped Social Services

A disproportionately large expenditure on army and civil administration and the cost of wars left little to be spent on  social services like education, health, sanitation, physical infrastructure, etc., a legacy which still haunts this country. And whatever facilities were established catered to the elite sections and urban areas.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

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Q8. Consider the following statements

1.First  demand for regulation of the condition of workers in factories in India came from the Bombay textile capitalist lobby

  1. The Indian Factory Act, 1881 dealt primarily with the problem of child labour

  2. Factory Acts were only applied to British-owned tea and coffee plantations

Which of the above statements are incorrect

Select the correct codes from the below:

(a) 1and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer c

Explanation:

  • The first-ever demand for regulation of the condition of workers in factories in India came from the Lancashire textile capitalist lobby. Hence statement 1 is incorrect

  • Apprehending the emergence of a competitive rival in the Indian textile industry under conditions of cheap and unregulated labour, they demanded the appointment of a commission for investigation into factory conditions.

  • The Indian Factory Act, 1881 dealt primarily with the problem of child labour (between 7 and 12 years of age). Hence statement 2 is correct

  • But these laws did not apply to British-owned tea and coffee plantations where the labour was exploited ruthlessly and treated like slaves.

 

 

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Q9. Consider the following statements with respect to the role of Christian missionaries

  1. The missionaries regarded all religions to be a equal.

  2. They supported the Radicals whose scientific approach.

  3. They supported business and the capitalist support.

Which of the above statements are correct

Select the correct codes from the below:

(a) 1and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer b

Explanation:  Role of Christian Missionaries

The missionaries regarded Christianity to be a superior religion and wanted to spread it in India through westernization which, they believed, would destroy the faith of the natives in their own religion and culture.

Towards this end, the Christian missionaries

— supported the Radicals whose scientific approach, they believed, would undermine the native culture and beliefs;

— supported the Imperialists since law and order and the British supremacy were essential for their propaganda; and

— sought business and the capitalist support holding out the hope to them that the Christian converts

would be better customers of their goods.

 

Q10. Consider the following statements with respect to the role of Princely states in  British  India

1.Princely states were equal in status  to British Crown

  1. British Government interfered in the internal affairs of princely states

  2. British helped princely states adopt modern administrative institutions.

Which of the above statements are correct

Select the correct codes from the below:

(a) 1and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer b

Explanation:

  • The subordination of princely states to British authority was completed when the fiction of Indian states standing in a status of equality with the Crown as independent, sovereign states ended with the Queen adopting the title of Kaiser-I Hind (Queen Empress of India) in 1876,Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

  • To emphasise British sovereignty over entire India, It was later made clear by Lord Curzon that the princes ruled their states merely as agents of the British Crown.  Hence statement 2 is correct

  • With paramountcy, the British Government exercised the right to interfere in the internal affairs of states through their residents or by appointing and dismissing ministers and officials.

  • The British were helped further in their encroachment by modern developments in communication—railways, roads, telegraph, canals, post offices, etc.

  • The motive for interference was also provided by the rise of nationalist, democratic sentiments in these states, the suppression of which, the British realised, was essential for their survival. As a positive side to these modern political movements, the British helped these states adopt modern administrative institutions.

 

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Q11. Consider the following statements

  1. British sided with the socially orthodox and conservative elements of society specially after 1857.

  2. Indians demanded a rule in accordance with the modern principles of liberty, equality and justice.

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Answer c

Explanation:  British Retreat

After 1858, however, the policy of hesitant modernization was gradually abandoned. However, the Indians proved to be apt pupils and shifted rapidly towards modernisation of their society and assertion of their culture and demanded a rule in accordance with the modern principles of liberty, equality and justice.

Now, the British came to side with the socially orthodox and conservative elements of society. They also encouraged casteism and communalism.

 

Q12.Consider the statements with respect to to the relation between British and Princely states

  1. Princely states were equal in status to British parliament

  2. Princely states were created as a buffer against future political unrest

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Answer b

Explanation: Relations with princely states were to be guided by a two point policy—using and perpetuating them as bulwark of the empire and subordinating them completely to British authority (the policy of subordinate union). Hence statement 1 is incorrect

To cultivate these states as a buffer against future political unrest and to reward them for their loyalty during the revolt of 1857, the policy of annexation was abandoned. Hence statement 2 is correct

The new policy was to depose or punish but not annex. Also, territorial integrity of states was guaranteed and it was announced that their right to adopt an heir would be respected.

 

  1. Which of the statements about Illbert Bill is /are correct

1.It proposed to grant limitted criminal jurisdiction to native officials

2.It proposed to grant complete civil and criminal jurisdiction to native officials

3.The proposed bill generated opposition from England’s European subject in India

4.Inspite of the opposition of the Bill, it was passed without any modification

Select the correct codes from the below:

(a) 2 and 3  only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer c

Explanation: Ilbert Bill controversy.

  • Ripon’s Government had sought to abolish “judicial disqualification based on race distinctions” and to give the Indian members of the covenanted civil service the same powers and rights as those enjoyed by their European colleagues.

  • Ripon had to modify the bill, thus almost defeating the original purpose, because of the stiff opposition from the European community.

  • It became clear to the nationalists that justice and fair play could not be expected where interests of the European community were involved.

  • However, the organised agitation by the Europeans to revoke the Ilbert Bill also taught the nationalists how to agitate for certain rights and demands.

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Chapter 28

 Economic Impact of British Rule in India

1) Consider the following statement regarding Administrative changes took place after 1857 in British India.

  1. It started looking for Alliance with the zamindar’s to acquire more lands.

  2. It withdrew supports to the social reforms but promoted Muslim education.

  3. It started to create a split among Hindu and Muslim on the basis of availability of resources.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

  1. a) 1 and 2 only

  2. b) 2 and 3 only

  3. c) 1 and 3 only

  4. d) 1, 2 and 3 only

 

2) Which of the following is/are the factors responsible for the rise of national movement in India?

  1. The clash of the interest of the Indian people with British interest in India.

  2. Political, Administrative and Economic unification of India.

  3. Trade, tariff, taxation and transport policies of the government.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. a) 1 and 2 only

  2. b) 2 and 3 only

  3. c) None of the above

  4. d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer d

Statement 1 is correct: It was one of the major cause for the revolts and rise of nationalism in India

Statement 2 is correct: The British rule united  India from Himalya to Cape Comorin and Khyber to Arunachal. Economic fate of people of one region was linked to other region.

Statement 3 is correct : The policies of the government favored the foreign capitalists. High Tarrif, taxation and transport cost, hampered the growth of Indian Capitalist.

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Q3). Select the correct statement about subsidiary alliance

  1. Economic partnership between the Indian states and the French

  2. Political and military agreement between the Indian states and the British

  3. Agreements between European traders regarding the revenue sharing model Indian states

  4. Treaties that restricted the inheritance rights of rulers in Indian states

Answer : b

Explanation: According to the terms of this alliance, Indian rulers were not allowed to have their independent armed forces. They were to be protected by the Company, but had to pay for the ‘subsidiary forces’ that the Company was supposed to maintain for the purpose of this protection. If the Indian rulers failed to make the payment, then part of their territory was taken away as penalty.

First to accept Subsidiary alliance was Awadh during Wellesly.

 

 

Q4. Which of the following statement is/are correct about economic impact of British rule

  1. Free Trade

  2. Reintensified Industrial Revolution of Europe on the cost of deindustrialisation of India

  3. Ruralisation of Indian econmomy.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. a) 1 and 2 only

  2. b) 2 and 3 only

  3. c) None of the above

  4. d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer b:

Explanation:

Deindustrialisation—Ruin of Artisans and Handicraftsmen

One-Way Free Trade

Cheap and machine-made imports flooded the Indian market after the Charter Act of 1813 allowing one-way free trade for the British citizens. On the other hand, Indian products found it more and more difficult to penetrate the European markets. Tariffs of nearly 80 per cent were imposed on Indian textiles so that Indian cloth could no longer be cheap. After 1820, European markets were virtually closed to Indian exports. Cheap British made cloth flooded the Indian market. The newly introduced rail network helped the European products to reach the remotest corners of the country. From being a net exporter, India became a net importer. Hence  1 is incorrect

  • No Steps towards Modern Industrialisation

The loss of traditional livelihood was not accompanied by a process of industrialisation in India, as had happened in other rapidly industrialising countries of the time. This resulted in deindustrialisation of India at a time when Europe as witnessing a reintensified Industrial Revolution. This happened at a time when Indian artisans and handicraftsmen were already feeling the crunch due to loss of patronage by rinces and the nobility, who were now under the influence of new western tastes and values.

  • Ruralisation

Another feature of deindustrialisation was the decline of many cities and a process of ruralisation of India. Many artisans, faced with diminishing returns and repressive policies (in Bengal, during the Company’s rule, artisans were paid low wages and forced to sell their products at low prices), abandoned their professions, moved to villages and took to agriculture.

Q5.

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Chapter 29

 Development of Indian Press

Q1. Consider the following about Amrita Bazaar Patrika

1.It played a major role in the evolution and growth of Indian journalism

  1. It is the oldest Indian-owned English daily.

  2. It was discontinued during the emergency in 1976 .

  3. It was started by Sishir Ghosh and Moti Lal Ghosh.

Which of the above statements are correct

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. a) 1, 2 and 3 only

  2. b) 1,3 and 4 only

  3. c) 2 and 3 only

  4. d) 1,2 and 4 only

Answer d

Explanation:

  • The Amrita Bazar Patrika turned overnight into an English newspaper to escape the Vernacular press act.

  • It used to be a nationalist newspaper during the British rule, discontinued its publication from 1986.Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

  • It was started by Sishir Ghosh and Moti Lal Ghosh.

  • The Patrika had many brushes with Lord Curzon, the Viceroy of India at the time of the Partition of Bengal (1905)

 

Q2. Consider the following statements

  1. Calcutta General Advertiser, the first newspaper in India was started in 1872

  2. It was a weekly newspaper

  3. It was banned as the officers were afraid it might expose them in London

Which of the above statements is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

 

Answer d

Explanation:

  • James Augustus Hickey in 1780 started The Bengal Gazette or Calcutta General Advertiser, the first weekly newspaper in India, which was seized in 1872 because of its outspoken criticism of the Government.

  • Later more newspapers/journals came up—The Bengal Journal, The Calcutta Chronicle, The Madras Courier, The Bombay Herald.

  • The Company’s officers were worried that these newspapers might reach London and expose their misdeeds. Thus they saw the need for curbs on the press.

 

Q3. Consider the following statements

  1. First Newspaper published in Asia was in Calcutta

  2. Lord Wellesly was first to enact the press censor ship act

  3. Lord Metcalfe is known as the liberator of Press

Which of the above statements is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer d

Explanation:

  • Lord Wellesley enacted Censorship of Press Act, 1799, anticipating French invasion of India. It imposed almost wartime press restrictions including pre-censorship. These restrictions were relaxed under Lord Hastings, who had progressive views, and in 1818, precensorship was dispensed with.

  • Hicky’s Bengal Gazette or the Original Calcutta General Advertiser was an English language weekly newspaper published in Kolkata, the capital of British India. It was the first newspaper printed in Asia, and was published for two years, before the East India Company seized the newspaper’s types and printing press.

  • Metcalfe (governor-general—1835-36) repealed the obnoxious 1823 ordinance and earned the epithet, “liberator of the Indian press”. The new Press Act (1835) required a printer/publisher to give a precise account of premises of a publication and cease functioning, if required by a similar declaration. The result of a liberal press policy was a rapid growth of newspapers.

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Q4.Which of the following are correctly matched

               Newspaper                                                Personality Associated

  1. Voice of India             Dadabhai Naoroji

  2. The Bengalee Surendranath Banerjea

  3. Sudharak N. Sen

  4. Indian Mirror Gopal Krishna Gokhale

Which of the above statements are correct

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. a) 1 and 2 only

  2. b) 1,3 and 4 only

  3. c) 2 and 3 only

  4. d) 1,2 and 4 only

Answer a

Explanation:

  • Many newspapers emerged during these years under distinguished and fearless journalists.

  • These included The Hindu and Swadesamitran under G. Subramaniya Aiyar,

  • The Bengalee under Surendranath Banerjea,

  • Voice of India under Dadabhai Naoroji,

  • Amrita Bazar Patrika under Sisir Kumar Ghosh and Motilal Ghosh,

  • Indian Mirror under N.N. Sen,

  • Kesari (in Marathi) and Maharatta (in English) under Balgangadhar Tilak,

  • Sudharak under Gopal Krishna Gokhale,

  • and Hindustan and Advocate under G.P. Verma.

  • Other main newspapers included, Tribune and Akbhar-i-am in Punjab, Gujarati, Indu Prakash, Dhyan Prakash and Kal in Bombay and Som Prakash, Banganivasi and Sadharani in Bengal.

 

Q5. Consider the following statements about role played by the newspapers in Freedom Struggle

  1. Newspapers had a wide reach and they stimulated a library movement.

  2. Their impact was limited to cities and towns.

  3. In these newspapers, government Acts and policies were put to critical scrutiny.

Which of the above statements is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer c

 

Explanation:

  • These newspapers were not established as profitmaking business ventures but were seen as rendering national and public service.

  • In fact, these newspapers had a wide reach and they stimulated a library movement.

  • Their impact was not limited to cities and towns; these newspapers reached the remote villages, where each news item and editorial would be read and discussed thoroughly in the ‘local libraries’ which would gather around a single newspaper.

  • In this way, these libraries served the purpose of not only political education but also of political participation.

  • In these newspapers, government Acts and policies were put to critical scrutiny. They acted as an institution of opposition to the government.

 

 

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Q6. Writings hostile to the government used to be prefaced with sentiments of loyalty to the government or critical writings of socialists or Irish nationalists from newspapers in England used to be quoted.

This was done mainly to

  1. To subvert Section 124 A of the Indian Penal Code

  2. Tilak was highly evolved in such acts

Which of the above statemenst is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. None

Answer c

Explanation:

  • The government on its part had enacted many strident laws, such as Section 124 A of the Indian Penal Code which provided that anyone trying to cause disaffection against the British Government in India was to be transported for life or for any term or imprisoned up to three years.

  • But the nationalist-minded journalists had evolved many clever strategems to subvert these legal hurdles.

  • For instance, writings hostile to the government used to be prefaced with sentiments of loyalty to the government or critical writings of socialists or Irish nationalists from newspapers in England used to be quoted.

  • Tilak was the master of this art.

  • This was a difficult task which required an intelligent mix of simplicity with subtlety.

 

 

Q7. Consider the following statements

  1. The Vernacular Press Act (VPA) was designed to ‘better control’ the entire press.

  2. It meant to effectively punish and repress seditious writing both in Vernacular language and English.

Which of the above statemenst is/are incorrect

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. None

Answer c

Explanation: 

  • A bitter legacy of the 1857 revolt was the racial bitterness between the ruler and the ruled.

  • After 1858, the European press always rallied behind the government in political controversies while the vernacular press was critical of the government.

  • There was a strong public opinion against the imperialistic policies of Lytton, compounded by terrible famine (1876-77), on the one hand, and lavish expenditure on the imperial Delhi Durbar, on the other.

  • The Vernacular Press Act (VPA) was designed to‘better control’ the vernacular press and effectively punish and repress seditious writing.

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Q8. Consider the following with respect to Vernacular Press Act (VPA)

  1. The printer and publisher could also be required to deposit security which could be forefeited if the regulation were contravened.

  2. The magistrate’s action was final and no appeal could be made in a court of law.

  3. English papers were not touched in VPA

Which of the above statements is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

 

Answer d

Explanation:

  • The district magistrate was empowered to call upon the printer and publisher of any vernacular newspaper to enter into a bond with the government undertaking not to cause disaffection against the government or antipathy between persons of different religions, caste, race through published material; the printer and publisher could also be required to deposit security which could be forefeited if the regulation were contravened, and press equipment could be seized if the offence re-occurred.

  • The magistrate’s action was final and no appeal could be made in a court of law.

  • A vernacular newspaper could get exemption from the operation of the Act by submitting proofs to a government censor.

  • The Act came to be nicknamed “the gagging Act”. The worst features of this Act were—(i) discrimination between English and vernacular press, (ii) no right of appeal.

 

Q9.Consider the following statements.

Assertion (A): In 1883, Surendranath Banerjea became the first Indian journalist to be imprisoned.

Reason (R): In The Bengalee Banerjea had criticised a judge of Calcutta High Court for being insensitive to the religious sentiments of Bengalis in one of his judgements.

In the context of the above, which of these is correct?

  1. a) A is correct, and R is an appropriate explanation of A.

  2. b) A is correct, but R is not an appropriate explanation of A.

  3. c) A is correct, but R is incorrect.

  4. d) Both A and R are incorrect.

Answer a

Explaantion:

  • In 1883, Surendranath Banerjea became the first Indian journalist to be imprisoned. In an angry editorial in The Bengalee Banerjea had criticised a judge of Calcutta High Court for being insensitive to the religious sentiments of Bengalis in one of his judgements.

  • Later, the pre-censorship clause was repealed, and a press commissioner was appointed to supply authentic and accurate news to the press.

  • There was strong opposition to the Act and finally Ripon repealed it in 1882.

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Q10. Arrange the following chronologically

  1. Newspaper (Incitement to Offences) Act

  2. Indian Press (Emergency Powers) Act

  3. Vernacular press Act

Choose the correct order from the codes

  1. 1-2-3

  2. 3-2-1

  3. 1-3-2

  4. 3-1-2

Answer d

  • Indian Press (Emergency Powers) Act, 1931 This Act gave sweeping powers to provincial governments to suppress propaganda for Civil Disobedience Movement. It was further amplified in 1932 to include all activities calculated to undermine government authority.

  • Newspaper (Incitement to Offences) Act, 1908 Aimed against Extremist nationalist activity, the Act empowered the magistrates to confiscate press property which published objectionable material likely to cause incitement to murder acts of violence.

  • The Indian newspapers became highly critical of Lord Lytton’s administration especially regarding its inhuman treatment to victims of the famine of 1876-77. The Government struck back with the Vernacular Press Act, 1878.

 

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Chapter 30

 Development of Education

 

Q1.Consider the following statements with respect to Wood’s Despatch

  1. Declared English language as the main objective of educational policy Diffused with “the improved arts, science, philosophy and literature of Europe” .

  2. Emphasized upon development of private enterprise, training of teachers, increased attention to girls and women etc.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: d

Explanation:  All the statements are correct

In 1854, Charles Wood prepared a despatch on an educational system for India. Considered the “Magna Carta of English Education in India”, this document was the first comprehensive plan for the spread of education in India.

  1. It asked the government of India to assume responsibility for education of the masses, thus repudiating the ‘downward filtration theory’, at least on paper.

  2. It systematised the hierarchy from vernacular primary schools in villages at bottom, followed by Anglo-Vernacular High Schools and an affiliated college at the district level, and affiliating universities in the presidency towns of Calcutta, Bombay and Madras.

  3. It recommended English as the medium of instruction for higher studies and vernaculars at school level.

  4. It laid stress on female and vocational education, and on teachers’ training.

  5. It laid down that the education imparted in government institutions should be secular.

  6. It recommended a system of grants-in-aid to encourage private enterprise.

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Chapter 31

 Peasant Movements 1857-1947

 

Q1. Which of  the following is not Correct cause of paesant movements in India

a)colonial economic policies

  1. b) ruin of the handicrafts leading to overcrowding of land

  2. c) low rent of agrarian land

d)colonial administrative and judicial system.

Answer c

Explanation: 

The impoverishment of the Indian peasantry was a direct result of the transformation of the agrarian structure due to—

  • colonial economic policies,

  • ruin of the handicrafts leading to overcrowding of land,

  • the new land revenue system,

  • colonial administrative and judicial system.

The peasants suffered from high rents, illegal levies, arbitrary evictions and unpaid labour in zamindari areas. In Ryotwari areas, the government itself levied heavy land revenue.

 

Q2. Consider the following statements  about the Indigo Revolt

1.It was led by Digambar Biswas and Bishnu Biswas

  1. The ryots went on a rent strike by refusing to pay the enhanced rents.

  2. The Bengali intelligentsia played a significant role by supporting them in legal battles.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. a) 1 only

  2. b) 2 and 3 only

  3. c) 1 and 3 only

  4. d) 1, 2 and 3.

Answer d

Explanation: Indigo Revolt (1859-60)

  • In Bengal,The planters forced the peasants to take advance sums and enter into fraudulent contracts which were then used against the peasants.

  • The planters intimidated the peasants through kidnappings, illegal confinements, flogging, attacks on women and children, seizure of cattle, burning and demolition of houses and destruction of crops.

  • The anger of the peasants exploded in 1859 when, led by Digambar Biswas and Bishnu Biswas of Nadia district, they decided not to grow indigo under duress and resisted the physical pressure of the planters and their lathiyals (retainers) backed by police and the courts.

  • They also organised a counter force against the planters’ attacks. The planters also tried methods like evictions and enhanced rents. The ryots replied by going on a rent strike by refusing to pay the enhanced rents and by physically resisting the attempts to evict them.

  • Gradually, they learned to use the legal machinery and initiated legal action supported by fund collection.

  • The Bengali intelligentsia played a significant role by supporting the peasants’ cause through newspaper campaigns, organisation of mass meetings, preparing memoranda on peasants’ grievances and supporting them in legal battles.

 

Q2. Which  following statements is impact of Indigo Revolt

  1. Ryots could not be compelled to grow indigo

  2. Indigo cultivation flourished in Bengal after the revolt.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. a) 1 only

  2. b) 2 only

  3. c) Both 1 and 2

  4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer a

Explanation: 

The Government appointed an indigo commission to inquire into the problem of indigo cultivation. Based on its recommendations, the Government issued a notification in November 1860 that the

  • Ryots could not be compelled to grow indigo and

  • that it would ensure that all disputes were to be  settled by legal means.

  • But, the planters were already closing down factories and indigo cultivation was virtually wiped out from Bengal by the end of 1860.

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Q3. Consider the following statements  about the Pabna agrarian leagues

  1. It was against the oppressive policy of British.

  2. The league organised a rent strike, challenging the zamindars in the courts.

  3. The main form of struggle was that of legal resistance

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. a) 1 only

  2. b) 2 and 3 only

  3. c) 1 and 3 only

  4. d) 1, 2 and 3.

Answer b

Explanation:

  • During the 1870s and 1880s, large parts of Eastern Bengal witnessed agrarian unrest caused by oppressive practices of the zamindars.

  • The league organised a rent strike—the ryots refused to pay the enhanced rents, challenging the zamindars in the courts.

  • Funds were raised by ryots to fight the court cases. The struggles spread throughout Patna and to other districts of East Bengal.

  • The main form of struggle was that of legal resistance; there was very little violence.

 

Q4.Consider the following statements  about the Deccan riots o 1860’s

  1. It was against the Money Lenders.

  2. The end of the American Civil War intensified the crisis.

  3. The main form of struggle was that of Social boycott

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. a) 1 only

  2. b) 2 and 3 only

  3. c) 1 and 3 only

  4. d) 1, 2 and 3.

Answer d

Explanation:

  • The ryots of Deccan region of western India suffered heavy taxation under the Ryotwari system. The peasants found themselves trapped in a vicious network with the moneylender as the exploiter and the main beneficiary.

  • The conditions had worsened due to a crash in cotton prices after the end of the American Civil War in 1864, the Government’s decision to raise the land revenue by 50% in 1867, and a succession of bad harvests.

  • In 1874, the growing tension between the moneylenders and the peasants resulted in a social boycott movement organised by the ryots against the “outsider” moneylenders.

 

Q5. Which of the following about the peasant movements in British India  after 1857 is incorrect

  1. a) Demands were centred almost wholly on economic issues.

  2. b) The movements were directed against foreign planters and Zamindars

  3. c) The struggles were directed towards specific and limited objectives

  4. d) Colonialism was the target of these movements.

Answer: d

Explanation: Changed Nature of Peasant Movements after 1857

  • Peasants emerged as the main force in agrarian movements, fighting directly for their own demands.

  • The demands were centred almost wholly on economic issues.

  • The movements were directed against the immediate enemies of the peasant—foreign planters and indigenous zamindars and moneylenders.

  • The struggles were directed towards specific and limited objectives and redressal of particular grievances.

  • Colonialism was not the target of these movements.

  • It was not the objective of these movements to end the system of subordination or exploitation of the peasants.

  • Territorial reach was limited.

  • There was no continuity of struggle or long-term organisation.

  • The peasants developed a strong awareness of their legal rights and asserted them in and outside the courts.

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Q6. Consider the following statements  about the Eka Movement

  1. It was against the oppression of “thikadars” in charge of revenue collection.

  2. The grassroot leadership of the Eka Movement came from the Indian National Congress.

  3. The movement was predominant in Bombay province.

Select the incorrect answer using the codes below.

  1. a) 1 only

  2. b) 2 and 3 only

  3. c) 1 and 3 only

  4. d) 1, 2 and 3.

 

Answer b

Explanation: Eka Movement

Towards the end of 1921, peasant discontent resurfaced in some northern districts of the United Provinces—Hardoi, Bahraich, Sitapur.Hence statement 3 is incorrect

 The issues involved were:

(i) high rents—50 per cent higher than the recorded rates;

(ii) oppression of thikadars in charge of revenue collection; Hence Statement 1 is correct

(iii) practice of share-rents.

The meetings of the Eka or the Unity Movement involved a symbolic religious ritual in which the assembled peasants vowed that they would

  • pay only the recorded rent but would pay it on time;

  • not leave when evicted;

  • refuse to do forced labour;

  • give no help to criminals;

  • abide by panchayat decisions.

The grassroot leadership of the Eka Movement came from Madari Pasi and other low-caste leaders, and many small zamindars. Hence statmemt 2 is incorrect.

By March 1922, severe repression by authorities brought the movement to an end.

 

Q7. Consider the following statements  about the Mappila Movement

  1. The Mappilas were the Muslim tenants inhabiting the Malabar

  2. The Mappila movement was independent of the Khilafat agitation.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. a) 1 only

  2. b) 2 only

  3. c) Both 1 and 2

  4. d) None

Answer a

Explanation:

  • The Mappilas were the Muslim tenants inhabiting the Malabar region where most of the landlords were Hindus.

  • The Mappilas had expressed their resentment against the oppression of the landlords during the nineteenth century also. Their grievances centred around lack of security of tenure, high rents, renewal fees and other oppressive exactions.

  • The Mappila tenants were particularly encouraged by the demand of the local Congress body for a government legislation regulating tenant-landlord relations. Soon, the Mappila movement merged with the ongoing Khilafat agitation.

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Q8. Which of the following statements  about the Mappila Movement is incorrect

  1. The Mappila movement merged with the ongoing Khilafat agitation.

  2. The Mappilas had expressed their resentment against the oppression of the landlords

  3. The highlight of the movement was its secular tone

  4. Initially the agitators targeted government buildings.

Answer c

Explanation:

  • The Mappilas were the Muslim tenants inhabiting the Malabar region where most of the landlords were Hindus.

  • The Mappilas had expressed their resentment against the oppression of the landlords during the nineteenth century also. Their grievances centred around lack of security of tenure, high rents, renewal fees and other oppressive exactions.

  • The Mappila tenants were particularly encouraged by the demand of the local Congress body for a government legislation regulating tenant-landlord relations. Soon, the Mappila movement merged with the ongoing Khilafat agitation.

  • Initially, the symbols of British authority—courts, police stations, treasuries and offices— and unpopular landlords (jenmies who were mostly Hindus) were the targets. But once the British declared martial law and repression began in earnest, the character of the rebellion underwent a definite change. Many Hindus were seen by the Mappilas to be helping the authorities.

  • What began as an antigovernment and anti-landlord affair acquired communal overtones. The communalisation of the rebellion completed the isolation of the Mappilas from the Khilafat-NonCooperation Movement. By December 1921, all resistance had come to a stop.

Q9. Consider the following statements  about the Bardoli Satyagraha

  1. Authorities decided to increase the land revenue by 30 per cent.

  2. Bardoli Inquiry Committee found the revenue hike to be justified

  3. The women of Bardoli gave Vallabhbhai Patel the title of “Sardar”

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. a) 1 only

  2. b) 2 and 3 only

  3. c) 1 and 3 only

  4. d) 1, 2 and 3.

Answer  c

  • The movement sparked off in January 1926 when the authorities decided to increase the land revenue by 30 per cent.

  • The Congress leaders were quick to protest and a Bardoli Inquiry Committee was set up to go into the issue. The committee found the revenue hike to be unjustified. In February 1926, Vallabhbhai Patel was called to lead the movement.

  • The women of Bardoli gave him the title of “Sardar”. Under Patel, the Bardoli peasants resolved to refuse payments of the revised assessment until the Government appointed an independent tribunal or accepted the current amount as full payment.

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  1. Which of the following statements about the Bardoli Satyagraha is correct

  2. Those who opposed the movement in the society faced a social boycott.

  3. The Government was looking for a graceful withdrawal

  4. Special emphasis was placed on the mobilisation of women.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. a) 1 only

  2. b) 2 and 3 only

  3. c) 1 and 3 only

  4. d) 1, 2 and 3.

Answer  d

Explanation:

  • An intelligence wing was set up to make sure all the tenants followed the movement’s resolutions.

  • Those who opposed the movement faced a social boycott.

  • Special emphasis was placed on the mobilisation of women.

  • M. Munshi and Lalji Naranji resigned from the Bombay Legislative Council in support of the movement.

  • The Government was looking for a graceful withdrawal now. It set the condition that first the enhanced rent be paid by all the occupants (not actually done).

  • Then, a committee went into the whole affair and found the revenue hike to be unjustified and recommended a rise of 6.03 per cent only.

 

 

  1. Consider the following statements about the Tebhaga Movement

  2. It took place after the WW I and was prominent in Bengal Province

  3. Flood Commission recommended of tebhaga to the share-croppers

  4. Muslims also participated in large numbers

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. a) 1 only

  2. b) 2 and 3 only

  3. c) 1 and 3 only

  4. d) 1, 2 and 3.

Answer b

Explanation:

Tebhaga Movement

  • In September 1946, the Bengal Provincial Kisan Sabha gave a call to implement, through mass struggle, the Flood Commission recommendations of tebhaga—two-thirds’ share—to the bargardars, , instead of the one-half share. Hence statement 1 is incorrect

  • The bargardars worked on lands rented from the jotedars. The communist cadres, including many urban student militias went to the countryside to organise the bargardars. The central slogan was “nij khamare dhan tolo”—i.e., sharecroppers taking the paddy to their own threshing floor and not to the jotedar’s house, as before, so as to enforce tebhaga.

  • The storm centre of the movement was north Bengal, principally among Rajbanshis—a low caste of tribal origin. Muslims also participated in large numbers.

  1. Slogan “nij khamare dhan tolo” is associated to which peasant movement.

  2. a) Tebhaga Movement

  3. b) Mappila Revolt

  4. c) Indigo Revolt

  5. d) Bardoli Stayagraha

Answer a

Explanation:

  • In September 1946, the Bengal Provincial Kisan Sabha gave a call to implement, through mass struggle, the Flood Commission recommendations of tebhaga—two-thirds’ share—to the bargardars, , instead of the one-half share. Hence statement 1 is incorrect

  • The bargardars worked on lands rented from the jotedars. The communist cadres, including many urban student militias went to the countryside to organise the bargardars. The central slogan was “nij khamare dhan tolo”—e., sharecroppers taking the paddy to their own threshing floor and not to the jotedar’s house, as before, so as to enforce tebhaga.

  • The storm centre of the movement was north Bengal, principally among Rajbanshis—a low caste of tribal origin. Muslims also participated in large numbers.

 

  1. Consider the following statements about the Telangana Movement

1.Gurrilla warfare technique was used during the movement

  1. Agricultural wages were raised.

  2. An improvement in the condition of women was witnessed.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. a) 1 only

  2. b) 2 and 3 only

  3. c) 1 and 3 only

  4. d) 1, 2 and 3.

Answer d

Explanation:

  • This was the biggest peasant guerrilla war of modern Indian history affecting 3000 villages and 3 million population.

  • In the villages controlled by guerrillas, vethi and forced labour disappeared.

  • Agricultural wages were raised.

  • Illegally seized lands were restored.

  • Steps were taken to fix ceilings and redistribute lands.

  • Measures were taken to improve irrigation and fight cholera.

  • An improvement in the condition of women was witnessed.

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  1. Arrange the following in chronological order.

  2. Telangana Movement

2.Tebhaga Movement

  1. Bardoli Satyagraha

  2. Mappila Revolt

  3. Eka Movement

  4. Pabna Agrarian Leagues

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. a) 1-2-3-4-5-6

  2. b) 2-4-5-3-1-6

  3. c) 6-5-4-3-2-1

  4. d) 4-3-2-5-6-1

Answer c

Pabna Agrarian Leagues        During the 1870s and 1880s

Eka Movement                        Towards the end of 1921

Mappila Revolt                        1921

Bardoli Satyagraha                 1926

Tebhaga Movement                In September 1946

Telanagana Movement           July 1946

 

15) The demand for the Tebhaga Peasant Movement in Bengal was for

(a) To improve  the condition of women in Bengal.

(b) The reduction of the share of the landlords from one-half of the crop to one-third

(c) One third seats in Assembly

(d) Increasse the Famine compensation to one third.

Answer b

Explanation:

  • In September 1946, the Bengal Provincial Kisan Sabha gave a call to implement, through mass struggle, the Flood Commission recommendations of tebhaga—two-thirds’ share—to the bargardars, , instead of the one-half share. Hence statement 1 is incorrect

  • The bargardars worked on lands rented from the jotedars. The communist cadres, including many urban student militias went to the countryside to organise the bargardars. The central slogan was “nij khamare dhan tolo”—e., sharecroppers taking the paddy to their own threshing floor and not to the jotedar’s house, as before, so as to enforce tebhaga.

  • The storm centre of the movement was north Bengal, principally among Rajbanshis—a low caste of tribal origin. Muslims also participated in large numbers.

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16.Which among the following uprisings that took place primarily in Bengal

  1. Pabna Uprising

  2. Kuki Rebellion

  3. Indigo Revolt

  4. Farazi Revolt

  5. Sanyasi Rebellion

Select the correct codes

(a) 1, 3, 4 and  5

(b)1, 3 and 4

(c) 2,4  and 5

(d) 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer a

The Great Kuki Rebellion of 1917-1919 was a defining event not only for the Kukis but for all Manipuris

Pabna Peasant Uprising (1873–76) was a resistance movement by the peasants (“Ryots”) against the lords of the lands in Bengal (“zamindars”)

The Indigo revolt (or Nil vidroha) was a peasant movement and subsequent uprising of indigo farmers against the indigo planters that arose in Bengal in 1859.

The Faraizi movement was founded in 1818 by Haji Shariatullah to give up un-Islamic practices and act upon their duties as Muslims (fard).This sect was founded by Haji Shariatullah in Bengal.

The Sannyasi rebellion or Sannyasi Revolt (1773-1800) were the activities of sannyasis and fakirs in Bengal against the East India Company rule in the late 18th century.

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  1. Consider the following statements about the Malabar rebellion.

  2. It was an armed uprising in 1921 against British authority and Hindu landlords.

  3. It began as a reaction against a heavy-handed crackdown on the Khilafat Movement by the British authorities in Kerala.

  4. The “Wagon tragedy” was related to this rebellion.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 and 3 only

  3. 1 and 3 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer d

  • It was launched by Mappila Muslims and was the culmination of a series of Mappila revolts that recurred throughout the 19th century and early 20th century.

  • The Mappilas attacked and took control of police stations, British government offices, courts and government treasuries.

  • In the later stages of the uprising, Mappilas committed several atrocities against the Hindu community, who they accused of helping the police to suppress their rebellion

  • The wagon tragedy was the death of 67 prisoners on 20 November 1921 in the Malabar region of Kerala state of India. The prisoners had been taken into custody following the Mappila Rebellion against British Colonial rule and Hindu landlords.

  • Their deaths through apparent negligence discredited the British Raj and generated sympathy for the Indian independence movement.

 

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Chapter 33

 Challenges Before the New-born Nation

Q1.Consider the following statements with regards to communist party in India just after Independence

  1. The communist movement was wide spread in entire subcontinent.

  2. The communist Party of India (CPI) was banned in Bengal

Select the correct answer from the codes given below

(a) 1 only

(b) 2  only

(c)Both  1 and 2

(d) None of the above

Answer b

Explanation:

  • The communist movement remained localized in Hyderabad and West Bengal. Hence statement 1 is incorrect

  • The mass support was sporadic and conditional as people were not ready to reject the Congress so soon after Independence.

  • The government also decided to take stern action; while in the Hyderabad region the Indian armed forces continued its ‘police action’,

  • In West Bengal the CPI was banned in March 1948 and in January, a security act was passed to imprison the communist leaders without trial. Hence statement 2 is correct

  • Within the Communist leadership, there were divisions on the ‘Chinese line’ and the ‘Russian line’ which became wider after the failure of a proposed railway strike on May 9, 1949

 

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Q2..Consider the following statements with regards to communist party in India

  1. Zhdanov thesis encoured activism in India

  2. Encouraged by the initial successes of the Telangana movement, misconceived as ‘beginning of Red India’

  3. They believed that a policy of class struggle and armed insurgency against the State

Which of the above statements is/are correct

Select the correct answer from the codes given below

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Answer b

  • Explanation: communists believed that a policy of class struggle and armed insurgency against the State run by the Congress, alleged as collaborationist bourgeoisie, was necessary to shift the attention of the masses from the politics of communal hatred that shrouded the country after partition. Hence statement 3 is correct

  • The late 1940s and the early 1950s witnessed communist successes in Asian countries like China, Malaya, Indonesia, the Philippines and Burma (Myanmar). In September 1947, Russia announced its ‘A. Zhdanov thesis’ as an answer to the Marshall Plan, encouraging more activism on the part of the international communist parties. The Indian communists thus geared up for an armed insurgency. Hence statement 1 is correct

  • According to Ramachandra Guha, the CPI leadership, encouraged by the initial successes of the Telangana movement, misconceived the ‘scattered disillusionment with the Congress as revolutionary potential, and thought this as the ‘beginning of Red India’. Hence statement 2 is correct

 

Q3.Consider the following statements

  1. Gandhi JI was assassinated in Tata house Ahmedabad

  2. Communalism and misinterpretation of nationalism were two fundamental factors due to which Gandhi Ji was killed.

  3. RSS was banned after the assassination of Gandhi Ji

Which of the above statements is/are correct

Select the correct answer from the codes given below

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Answer d

Explanation:

  • On the evening of January 30, 1948, as he carried on his usual prayer meeting at Birla mansion (New Delhi), Mahatma Gandhi was shot dead by Nathuram Godse. The event sent shock waves through the nation in making. Communalism and misinterpretation of nationalism were two fundamental factors under whose influence Godse killed Gandhi.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect but 2 is correct.

  • On February 4, 1948, the Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS) was banned by the government. It was felt by the government that the right wing extremism which the RSS was seen to represent would be very harmful for the unity of the nation.

Hence statement 3 is correct

 

Q4.Consider the following statements with regards to communist party in India just after Independence

  1. The Communist Party of India (CPI) had denounced the Indian independence as ‘fake’

  2. They declared that the national government established on August 15, 1947 was the major enemy of the Indian people.

  3. T. Ranadive line was followed to achieve their goal.

Which of the above statements is/are correct

Select the correct answer from the codes given below

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer d

Explanation:

  • In December 1947, the Communist Party of India (CPI) had denounced the Indian independence as ‘fake’—with the slogan, ‘ye azadi jhooti hai’—and termed the Congress government led by Nehru as the stooges of Anglo-American imperialism and the feudal forces within the country.

  • Hence statement 1 is correct

  • In February-March 1948, in its Second Congress in Calcutta, the CPI adopted its ‘Political Thesis’, which formally declared that the national government established on August 15, 1947 was indeed the major enemy of the Indian people and hence required to be changed through general revolution. To achieve this goal, the communist leaders decided to follow what popularly came to be known as the T. Ranadive line (after the name of CPI’s then general secretary).

  • Hence statement 2 is correct but 3 is correct.

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Q5.Consider the following statements with regards to Army after Independence

  1. A joint defense council, headed by Auchinleck was established for a smooth division of the armed forces

  2. Mountbatten was the joint Governor General for both the dominions i.e India and Pakistan till June 1948.

  3. Pakistani Army prepared a plan called Operation Gulmarg to attack Kashmir.

Which of the above statements is/are correct

Select the correct answer from the codes given below

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

 

Answer c

Explanation:

  • For a smooth division of the armed forces and their plants, machinery, equipment and stores, a joint defence council, headed by Auchinleck as its Supreme Commander

  • Hence statement 1 is correct

  • Mountbatten’s original plan was to stay on the joint Governor General for both the dominions till June 1948.

  • However, this was not accepted by the Pakistani leader Mohammad Ali Jinnah. In the event, Mountbatten stayed on as the Governor General of India, whereas Pakistan chose Jinnah as its Governor General.

  • Hence statement 2 is incorrect

  • According to Indian military sources, the Pakistani Army prepared a plan called Operation Gulmarg and put it into action as early as 20 August, a few days after Pakistan’s independence. Pakistani sources deny the existence of any plan called Operation Gulmarg. However, Shuja Nawaz does list 22 Pashtun tribes involved in the invasion of Kashmir on 22 October.

  • Hence statement 3 is correct

 

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Q6. Which of the following has been  the objectives of Land reforms in India post-Independence?

1) Land acquisition for land banks

2) Abolition of intermediaries like zamindari system

3) Tenant security

4) Consolidation of land holdings

Which of the statements given above regarding Land reforms in India post-Independence is/are  correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1,2 and 3 only

(c) 2,3 and 4 only

(d) 4 only

Answer c

Explanation: Until Independence, a large part of agricultural land was held by the intermediaries under the zamindari, mahalwari and ryotwari systems. Consequently, the tenants were burdened with high rents, unproductive cultivation and other forms of exploitation.

Objectives were (in 1950-60s):

  • Abolish intermediaries (zamindars)

  • Ceiling on holdings and redistribute surplus land in excess of ceiling

  • Regulate tenancy, amount of rent, ownership rights, rights of sharecroppers etc.

  • Consolidate small land holdings

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Chapter 34

The Indian States

Q1) Match the following

Policy                                                                    Time Period

  1. Policy of Ring Fence a (1857-1935)

  2. Policy of Subordinate Union b. (1765-1813)

  3. Policy of Subordinate Isolation c. (1935-1947):

  4. Policy of Equal Federation d. (1813-1857)

 

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below

       1  2   3   4

  1. a) b d   a   c

  2. b) b a   d   c

  3. c) c d   a    d

  4. d) c a   d   b

Answer b

Explanation:

The evolution of relations between the British authority and states can be traced under the following broad stages.

  1. The Company’s Struggle for Equality from a Position of Subordination (1740-1765)

  2. Policy of Ring Fence (1765-1813)

III. Policy of Subordinate Isolation (1813-1857)

  1. Policy of Subordinate Union (1857-1935)

  2. Policy of Equal Federation (1935-1947): A Non-Starter

  3. Integration and Merger

 

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Chapter 35

Making of the Constitution for India

Q1. Consider the following statements

  1. The Indian Constitution, came into effect on November 26, 1949

  2. Home Rule Bill of 1895, which envisaged basic human rights was inspired from ideas of Tilak

Which of the above statements is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. None

Answer b

Explanation:

The Indian Constitution, which came into effect on January 26, 1950,

 In the modern sense, there appeared the Constitution of India Bill, also known as the Home Rule Bill in 1895, which envisaged basic human rights such as freedom of expression, equality before the law, right to the inviolability of one’s home, right to property, etc., for all citizens of India.

Although, there is no conclusive evidence to prove the authorship of the Home Rule Bill, Annie Besant believed that the Bill was inspired by Tilak.

 

Q2. Which of the following is correct about NATIONAL DEMAND

  1. It was introduced in the Central Legislative Assembly by Motilal Nehru

  2. It was a resolution that gave due regard only to Muslim rights and interests

  3. Simon Commission was appointed in responce to National demand

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

Answer a

Explanation:

  • The Commonwealth of India Bill, which was drafted in India and to which Annie Besant, Tej Bahadur Sapru, V.S. Srinivasa Shastri made important contributions, was accepted unanimously by the executive committee of the Parliamentary Labour Party.

  • The Bill had its first reading in the House of Commons in December 1925; it was defeated, but it proved crucial as it had the support of very wide sections of Indian opinion, and specified in clear words that “India shall be placed on an equal footing with the self-governing dominions”.

  • After the Non-Cooperation Movement, Motilal Nehru in February 1924 introduced in the Central Legislative Assembly a resolution that gave due regard to minority rights and interests and came to be known as the National Demand. 2 is incorrect

  • It was passed by a large majority in the Assembly. For the first time, a demand for a constitution and the procedure for its adoption were expounded in clear terms.

  • Britain, in response to the National Demand, appointed the all-white Simon Commission in November 1927 to recommend further constitutional changes.

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Q3. Consider the following

  1. Nehru report was in response to Lord Birkinhead challenge

  2. Residuary powers were given to central government

  3. Joint electorates was not given a place in report

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

Answer d

Explanation:

In response to Lord Birkenhead’s challenge, the Nehru Report, submitted on August 1928, was an outline of a draft constitution for India. Most of its features were later incorporated in the Constitution of independent India.

  • The Report embodied not only the perspective of the contemporary nationalist opinion but also an outline of a draft constitution for India.

  • The latter was based on the principle of dominion status with full responsible government on the parliamentary pattern.

  • It asserted the principle that sovereignty belongs to the Indian people, laid down a set of fundamental rights and provided for a federal system with maximum autonomy granted to the units but residuary powers vesting in the central government and joint electorates for elections to the federal lower house and the provincial legislatures with reservation of seats for minorities in certain cases for a limited period.

 

 

Q4. Consider the following statements

  1. JL Nehru was first national leader to call for a constituent assembly for making of constitution.

  2. Cripps Mission conceded the request of Indians to frame their own constitution through a constituent assembly.

Which of the above statements is/are correct

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. None

Answer c

Explanation:

  • The Cripps Proposals of 1942, though rejected by the Congress as unacceptable, had one redeeming feature in that it conceded the request of Indians to frame their own constitution through a constituent assembly.

  • The idea that India’s Constitution should be framed via a Constituent Assembly elected for this very purpose and based on widest possible franchise gained support. Although, M.N. Roy had made such a suggestion earlier, Jawaharlal Nehru was the first national leader to enunciate the idea in 1933.

 

Q5. Consider the following statements

  1. Constituent Assembly was elected directly .

  2. The seats given to a province were decided among Muslims, Sikhs and General on the basis of their number.

  3. Initially a single constituent assembly was constituted forboth India and Pakistan

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

Answer b

Explanation:

It was decided that the Constituent Assembly was to be elected indirectly by the Provincial Assemblies.

The seats given to a province were decided among three communities on the basis of their number, the three communities being the Muslims, Sikhs and General including Hindus and all others who were not Muslims and Sikh

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Chapter 36

The Evolution of Nationalist Foreign Policy

 

Chapter 3

Q 1.Consider the following statements about Patna Kalam paintings

1.It was an offshoot of Mughal Painting

2.The  painting was secular in nature.

3.The paintings grew and spread rapidly after the introduction of Lithographic press.

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct

 Select the correct code

  1. a) 1and 2 only

  2. b) 2 and 3 only

  3. c) 1 and 3 only

  4. d) 1, 2 and 3 only.

Answer a

Explanation:

Numerous Indian schools of artworks were intensely impacted by Mughal artistic creations. One among these was Patna School of Painting or Patna Kalam or Company painting.

Statement 1 is correct: Patna Kalam was a branch of Mughal painting which prospered amid mid-eighteenth to mid-twentieth century in Bihar.

 

Statement 2 is correct:

Statement 3 is incorrect: With the advent of lithographic press the traditional paintings including PATNA KALAM gradually declined.

 

Source: Spectrum Modern India Chapter 2

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Q2. India was not the founding member of which of the following groups

  1. League of nations

  2. International labour organization

  3. International Court of Justice

  4. International Criminal Court

 

Answer d

Explanation: At independence, India was a member of 51 international organisations and a signatory to 600 odd treaties. India had signed the Versailles Treaty after the First World War, largely as a result of having contributed more than a million soldiers to that war. In the 1920s, it was a founding member of the League of Nations, the International Labour Organisation, and the International Court of Justice.

In news as a question was asked on league of nations in UPSC mains.

India recently ratified Convention No. 182 and Convention No. 138 of ILO relating to Child Labour.

Justice Dalbir Bhandari elected as judge of ICJ in 2017.

India is not a signatory to ICC

 

Q3. Which of the following is not matched  correctly

         War                                                                                 Year

  1. Second Afghan War 1878

  2. Annexation Of Burma By British 1903

  3. British Invasion Of Tibet 1885

Select the correct code?

  1. a) 1 only

  2. b) 2 only

  3. c) 2 and 3 only

  4. d) 1 and 2 only

 

Answer c

Explanation:

After 1878, the British undertook a number of expansionist expeditions which were opposed by the nationalists. These expeditions included—

  • the Second Afghan War (1878-80);

  • the dispatch of troops by England in 1882, to suppress the nationalist uprising by Col. Arabi in Egypt;

  • annexation of Burma in 1885;

  • invasion of Tibet under Curzon in 1903; and

  • a number of annexations during the 1890s in the north-west to stop the Russian advance. The nationalists supported the tribal resistance to these adventures by the British.

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  1. Consider the following statements

  2. Nationalists supported the British in WW I

2.Congress supported the Dispatch of Indian army to suppress Chinese nationalists under Sun Yet Sen

Which of the above statements are correct

Select the correct code?

  1. a) 1 only

  2. b) 2 only

  3. c) Both 1 and 2

  4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Answer a

Explanation:

The nationalists supported the British Indian Government in the belief that Britain would apply the same principles of democracy for which they were supposed to be fighting. After the conclusion of the War, the Congress insisted on being represented at the Peace Conference. In 1920, the Congress urged the people not to join the Army to fight in the West.

In 1925, the Congress condemned the dispatch of Indian Army to suppress the Chinese nationalist army under Sun Yat-Sen.

 

  1. Consider the following statements

  2. Nationalists supported the Ethopia’s struggle against Facism

  3. The Congress sent a medical mission under Dr Atal to China when Japan attacked China

  4. Congress supported the partition of Palestine..

Which of the above statements is/are correct

Select the correct code?

  1. a) 1 only

  2. b) 2 only

  3. c) 2 and 3 only

  4. d) 1 and 2 only

 

Answer d

Explanation:

The 1930s saw the rise of Fascism in Europe and the struggle against it. The nationalists saw imperialism and fascism as organs of capitalism. They lend support to the struggle against fascism in other parts of the world in Ethiopia, Spain, China,Czechoslovakia. 

In 1939, at the Tripuri session, the Congress dissociated itself from the British policy which supported fascism in Europe.

In 1939, the Japanese attack on China was condemned by the nationalists. The Congress also sent a medical mission under Dr Atal to China.

On the Palestine issue, the Congress lent support to the Palestinians. It expressed sympathy with the Jews, but urged that the Palestinians not be displaced and that the issue be settled by direct dealing between the Jews and the Arabs without Western intervention. It also opposed the partition of Palestine.

 

  1. Consider the following statements

  2. Mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty

  3. Peaceful co-existence.

  4. Mutual non-interference

Which of the above statements about PANCHSHEEL is/are correct

Select the correct code?

  1. a) 1 and 2 only

  2. b) 2 only

  3. c) 2 and 3 only

  4. d) 1 ,2 and 3 only

 

Answer d

Explanation: Panchsheel and Non-Alignment are the foundations of India’s foreign policy.

It was stated in the preamble to this agreement that the two governments had resolved to enter into the agreement on the basis of five principles, namely,

(i) Mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty

(ii) Mutual non-aggression

(iii) Mutual non-interference

(iv) Equality and mutual benefit

(v) Peaceful co-existence

 

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  1. Consider the following statements about Non Alligned Movement (NAM)

  2. Active refusal of a state to align itself with either party in a dispute between two power blocs.

2.First NAM summit was held in Belgrade in 1961

  1. Neutrality is maintained basically in times of war in NAM

Which of the above statements is/are correct

Select the correct code?

  1. a) 1 and 2 only

  2. b) 2 only

  3. c) 2 and 3 only

  4. d) 1 ,2 and 3 only

 

Answer a

Explanation: 

Five Criteria of Non-alignment

 

The Preparatory Committee of the first non-aligned conference laid down the following five criteria of non-alignment:

(i) A country should follow an independent policy based on peaceful co-existence and non-alignment.

(ii) It should have consistently supported national freedom movements in other countries.

(iii) It should not be a member of multi-lateral military alliances concluded in the context of super-power conflicts.

(iv) If it has conceded military bases, these concessions should not have been made in the context of super-power conflicts.

(v) If it is a member of a bilateral or regional defence arrangements, this should not be in the context of super-power politics.

 

Non-alignment implies the active refusal of a state to align itself with either party in a dispute between two power blocs.

The first non-aligned movement or NAM summit—held in Belgrade in 1961

 

  • Non-alignment, however, is not to be confused with neutrality. A neutral state remains inactive or passive during hostilities between two blocs.

  • Neutrality is maintained basically in times of war, whereas non-alignment has relevance both in times of war and peace. Neutrality is equivalent to passivity, a neutral country has no opinions (positive or negative) on issues at all.

  • However, adherence to non-alignment is to have positive and constructive opinions on international issues.

 

8.Consider the following statements regarding India’s foreign policy

 

1  Non-alignment has been one of the principles of India’s foreign policy.

  1. India attempts to promote international peace, disarmament and territorial independence.

  2. It aims at democratisation of international relations

  3. It aims to put an end to imperialism and hegemony and establishing a just and equal world order

 

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. a) 1,2 and 3 only

  2. b) 1,3 and 4 only

  3. c) 2,3 and 4 only

  4. d) All of the above

Answer d

Explanation:

India has firmly and convincingly asserted its ‘non-aligned’ and not ‘neutral’ stand on various issues. Non-alignment as one of the principles of India’s foreign policy attempts to promote international peace, disarmament and territorial independence. It aims at democratisation of international relations by putting an end to imperialism and hegemony and establishing a just and equal world order.

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Q9.Which of the following is  correct reason for India’s policy of Non-Alignment post-independence

  1. Economic backwardness of India

  2. Impending wars with South Asian neighbours

  3. Cold war rivalry

  4. Former agreements between South Asian neighbours

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. a) 1,2 and 3 only

  2. b) 1,3 and 4 only

  3. c) 2,3 and 4 only

  4. d) All of the above

 

Answer : a

Explanation:

  • Hence statement 1 is correct : policy of non-alignment helped us maintain an independent foreign policy and stop neo-colonialism, which could have again sapped India’s resouces

  • Hence statement 2 is correct because joining a cold war alliance may have further aggravated rivalry with neighbours

  • Hence statement 3 is correct as it was the cold war and in this context, Jawaharlal Nehru observed:  propose to keep away from the power politics of groups, aligned against one another, which have led in the past to world wars and which may again lead to disasters on an even vaster scale.

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Chapter 37

First General Elections

Q1) Consider the following Statements

  1. The provisions of the Constitution relating to citizenship brought into force on November 26, 1949

  2. Article 324 (the Election Commission) was brought into force on 24 January 1950.

  3. Sukumar Sen was the first Election commissioner of India

 

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

  1. a) 1 and 2 only

  2. b) 2 and 3 only

  3. c) 1 and 3 only

  4. d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer c

Explanation: The provisions of the Constitution relating to citizenship and Article 324 (the Election Commission) were brought into force on November 26, 1949, while the rest of the Constitution came into force on January 26, 1950.

The office of the Election Commission had been set up in a small way on January 25, 1950. The first Chief Election Commissioner of India was Sukumar Sen, an ICS officer, who assumed office on March 21, 1950.

Q2) Consider  the following statements regarding the first election in India

  1. Representation of the People Act, 1950, fixed the number of seats in each state legislature.

  2. Representation of the People Act, 1951, laid down provisions relating to qualifications and disqualifications of members

  3. The elections for Lok Sabha And Rajya Sabha ware held simultaneously

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

  1. a) 1 and 2 only

  2. b) 2 and 3 only

  3. c) 1 and 3 only

  4. d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer a

 

Explanatoion:

  • The Representation of the People Act, 1950 provided for the qualifications of voters and matters connected with the preparation and publication of electoral rolls.

  • It also allocated the number of seats in the House of the People to the several states and fixed the number of seats in each state legislature.

  • The second legislation was the Representation of the People Act, 1951, which laid down other provisions relating to qualifications and disqualifications of members, the conduct of elections, poll expenses, the poll itself, counting of votes, etc.

  • Of the 489 seats in the House of the People to be filled by election, 72 seats were reserved for candidates belonging to the Scheduled Castes, and 26 for candidates belonging to the Scheduled Tribes.

  • The total number of seats in the Legislative Assemblies of the states was 3,283. Out of these, 477 seats were reserved for the Scheduled Castes, and 192 for the Scheduled Tribes.

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Q3) Consider  the following statements regarding the first election in India

  1. The elections were held based on universal adult franchise as per article 326.

  2. All above twenty-one years of age or older had the right to vote

  3. 89 per cent of the total population was thus enrolled as voters.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

  1. a) 1 and 2 only

  2. b) 2 and 3 only

  3. c) 1 and 3 only

  4. d) 1, 2 and 3 only

 

Answer a

Explanation:  

  • The elections were held based on universal adult franchise,Article 326 with all those twenty-one years of age or older having the right to vote.

  • The total number of voters enrolled in the whole of India (excluding Jammu and Kashmir) was 17,32,13,635 (roughly more than 173 million). Of these, approximately 45 per cent were women voters. The total population of India (excluding Jammu and Kashmir) according to the 1951 census was 35,66,91,760.

  • As much as 49 per cent of the total population was thus enrolled as voters.

 

Q4) Match the following

Leader                                                                    Party

1.Shyama Prasad Mookeree                        a. Kisan Mazdoor Praja Party

2.Dr. B. R. Ambedkar                                     b. Bhartiya Jana Sangh

3.J. B. (Acharya) Kripalani                             c. Socialist Party

4.Ram Manohar Lohia                                   d. Republican Party

 

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below

       1  2   3   4

  1. a) b d   a   c

  2. b) b a   d   c

  3. c) c d   a    d

  4. d) c a   d   b

 

Answer a

Explnanation:

  • Shyama Prasad Mookeree (industries minister under Nehru) broke away to set up the Bharatiya Jana Sangh (a proto-BJP) in October 1951.

  • B. R. Ambedkar revived the Scheduled Castes Federation (which was later named the Republican Party).

  • B. (Acharya) Kripalani, founded the Kisan Mazdoor Praja Party.

  • Ram Manohar Lohia and Jaya Prakash Narayan, were the forces behind the Socialist Party

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Q5) Consider the following statements

  1. The Congress was the single largest party after the 1st general elction

  2. CPI was the second largest party in Lok Sabha

  3. The Socialist Party got 10.59 per cent votes highest after congress

 

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

  1. a) 1 and 2 only

  2. b) 2 and 3 only

  3. c) 1 and 3 only

  4. d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer: d

Explanation:

The Indian National Congress contested 472 seats and won 364, a stupendous majority of the seats to the Lok Sabha.

The CPI won 16 and the Socialist Party won 12 – the only other parties to get two-digit number of seats. The KMPP won 9 seats.The BJS won 3 seats. The independents got the highest number of seats after the Congress.

The Congress polled close to 45 per cent of the total vote. The CPI got about 3.29 per cent votes. The Socialist Party got 10.59 per cent votes.

 

 

 

 

 

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